Preparticipation screening primarily aims to:
A) Improve athletic performance immediately
B) Identify signs, symptoms, or history that warrant medical evaluation before testing
C) Replace emergency action plans
D) Diagnose specific diseases
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Screening is a safety filter to flag individuals who may need further evaluation prior to exercise testing.

 

Before any exercise test, the first measurements typically collected are:
A) Flexibility only
B) Resting heart rate, resting blood pressure, and basic anthropometrics
C) One repetition maximum testing
D) Twenty-meter shuttle run
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Resting vitals and body measures are done before exertion to avoid acute exercise effects.

 

Which is an absolute reason to stop a graded exercise test?
A) Mild facial flushing
B) Subject requests to stop
C) Stable leg discomfort rated 2 out of 10
D) Slight cuff artifact on blood pressure
Correct answer: B
 

Explanation: Participant request is always honored and is an absolute termination criterion.

During normal graded exercise, systolic blood pressure should:
A) Decrease markedly
B) Remain exactly the same
C) Increase progressively with workload
D) Show random changes unrelated to workload
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Cardiac output rises with work, elevating systolic pressure.

 

During normal graded exercise, diastolic blood pressure should:
A) Increase more than twenty millimeters of mercury
B) Decrease more than twenty millimeters of mercury
C) Stay about the same with changes less than or equal to ten millimeters of mercury
D) Fall to zero
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Peripheral vasodilation stabilizes diastolic pressure within a narrow range.

 

Which statement about informed consent for exercise testing is most accurate?
A) It is optional for submaximal tests
B) It documents that risks, benefits, and procedures were explained and understood
C) It guarantees there will be no adverse events
D) It replaces emergency planning
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Consent is an ethical and legal process of disclosure and understanding.

 

The order of a single testing session should generally be:
A) Aerobic field test → flexibility → resting blood pressure
B) Resting measures → body composition → muscular tests → cardiorespiratory tests → flexibility
C) Flexibility → resting measures → power tests → agility tests
D) Power → agility → sprint → maximal oxygen uptake test → resting blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Resting and nonfatiguing tests precede fatiguing tests to reduce interference.

 

The purpose of a warm-up before testing is to:
A) Reduce stroke volume
B) Lower muscle temperature
C) Prepare cardiovascular and neuromuscular systems and reduce injury risk
D) Exhaust the participant
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Gradual increase in temperature, blood flow, and nerve conduction primes performance and safety.

 

A standard rating of perceived exertion scale commonly used in testing is the:
A) Ten to fifty scale
B) Six to twenty scale
C) Zero to one scale
D) Two to eight scale
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The six to twenty scale roughly parallels heart rate in healthy adults (for example, 6 ≈ 60 beats per minute).

 

Which mode generally yields the highest measured maximal oxygen uptake in healthy individuals?
A) Arm crank ergometry
B) Recumbent stepping
C) Treadmill running or brisk walking uphill
D) Single-leg cycling
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Treadmill uses more muscle mass and supports higher oxygen consumption.

 

An advantage of cycle ergometer testing versus treadmill testing is that cycling:
A) Requires less skill to maintain workload and is easier to measure power output
B) Always produces a higher maximal oxygen uptake
C) Requires no calibration
D) Eliminates cardiovascular strain
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Work rate on a cycle is set mechanically and cadence is easily controlled.

 

A disadvantage of cycle ergometer testing for many untrained people is that:
A) Heart rate cannot be measured
B) Local leg fatigue may limit performance before cardiovascular capacity is reached
C) Oxygen consumption is not related to workload
D) It cannot be used for submaximal testing
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Quadriceps fatigue can cause early termination at lower systemic stress.

 

The Bruce treadmill protocol is characterized by:
A) Constant speed with small grade increases each minute
B) Three-minute stages with large increases in both speed and grade
C) Cycling stages at set cadences
D) Continuous downhill walking
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Bruce uses three-minute increments in speed and incline to raise workload quickly.

 

The Balke treadmill protocol is characterized by:
A) Large grade and speed jumps every minute
B) Small, gradual grade increases at a constant moderate speed
C) Alternating running and cycling
D) Step height changes every thirty seconds
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Balke progresses more slowly, suitable for lower fitness or clinical settings.

 

A submaximal cycle test that uses a six-minute steady-state workload and a nomogram to estimate maximal oxygen uptake is the:
A) Queens College step test
B) Astrand–Ryhming cycle test
C) Wingate anaerobic test
D) Cooper twelve-minute run
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The Astrand–Ryhming method estimates maximal oxygen uptake from steady-state heart rate and workload.

 

The Queens College step test estimates aerobic fitness from:
A) Peak blood lactate
B) Post-exercise heart rate at a set stepping cadence
C) Maximal voluntary ventilation
D) Blood pressure recovery at one minute
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Recovery pulse after standardized stepping predicts maximal oxygen uptake.

 

The twenty-meter shuttle run (“beep test”) is best described as:
A) A fixed-speed constant-load run
B) An incremental, externally paced field test to near maximal effort
C) A walking-only test
D) A test of static balance
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The audio signals increase pace progressively until volitional fatigue.

 

The Cooper twelve-minute run test estimates:
A) Maximum strength
B) Maximal oxygen uptake from distance covered
C) Agility
D) Anaerobic capacity
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Greater distance in twelve minutes reflects higher aerobic capacity.

 

Which is the most appropriate cuff size principle for accurate blood pressure at rest?
A) Cuff bladder should encircle at least forty percent of arm circumference
B) Cuff bladder width should be approximately forty percent of arm circumference and length should cover eighty percent
C) Use the smallest cuff for all
D) Use wrist cuffs for best accuracy
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Proper cuff dimensions reduce measurement error.

 

When measuring blood pressure, the stethoscope diaphragm is placed over the:
A) Brachial artery in the antecubital fossa
B) Radial artery at the wrist
C) Carotid artery
D) Femoral artery
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Sounds of Korotkoff are best heard at the brachial artery crease.

 

A normal heart rate response to graded exercise is:
A) Little change until maximal effort
B) A roughly linear increase with workload in submaximal domains
C) Immediate plateau at one hundred beats per minute
D) Decrease as workload rises
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Sympathetic drive and metabolic demand increase heart rate proportionally.

 

Which statement about test environment is most accurate?
A) Room temperature does not matter
B) Excess noise and poor ventilation can alter heart rate and perceived effort
C) Fans should never be used
D) Lighting determines oxygen consumption
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Environmental stressors affect physiology and perception.

 

The Wingate anaerobic test primarily assesses:
A) Aerobic capacity
B) Peak and mean anaerobic power over thirty seconds of maximal cycling
C) Flexibility
D) Balance
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A very high resistance sprint evaluates short-term power and fatigue index.

 

Vertical jump testing primarily evaluates:
A) Aerobic endurance
B) Lower-body explosive power
C) Flexibility of the spine
D) Balance
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Jump height relates to rate of force development and power.

 

Which of the following improves reliability when estimating one repetition maximum from repetitions to fatigue?
A) No warm-up and jump directly to a maximal attempt
B) Standardize range of motion, tempo, and rest intervals across sessions
C) Change exercises mid-test
D) Allow variable encouragement
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Consistency reduces measurement error and increases repeatability.

 

A common field agility test that uses cones in a T shape is the:
A) Illinois agility test
B) T-test
C) Hexagon test
D) Y-Balance test
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The T-test measures multidirectional speed, deceleration, and change of direction.

 

Body mass index is calculated as:
A) Mass divided by height
B) Mass divided by height squared
C) Height divided by mass
D) Mass squared divided by height
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Body mass index = kilograms per meter squared (or equivalent units).

 

A key limitation of body mass index in athlete testing is that it:
A) Requires expensive equipment
B) Does not distinguish fat mass from lean mass
C) Cannot be calculated for tall people
D) Is unrelated to health
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Muscular individuals may be misclassified because body mass index is a height–weight ratio.

 

Skinfold assessment relies on the assumption that:
A) Subcutaneous fat is unrelated to total body fat
B) A fixed proportion of total fat is subcutaneous for a given population
C) Fat-free mass density varies widely between people
D) Hydration does not affect results
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Prediction equations were developed using that assumption.

 

Bioelectrical impedance analysis can be biased most by:
A) Time of day only
B) Hydration status and recent food or exercise
C) Shoe type
D) Hair length
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Conductivity changes with water and electrolyte distribution.

 

Air displacement plethysmography (for example, a chamber method) estimates body composition by measuring:
A) Bone mineral directly
B) Body volume from pressure changes
C) Skinfold thickness
D) Oxygen uptake
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Volume plus body mass yields body density for composition models.

 

Hydrostatic weighing estimates body composition by:
A) Skinfolds
B) Air pressure
C) Water displacement and residual lung volume
D) Infrared light
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Underwater mass loss equals displaced water volume; density determines composition.

 

A two-compartment model of body composition divides the body into:
A) Water and solids
B) Fat mass and fat-free mass
C) Muscle and bone
D) Skin and organs
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Many field methods assume two compartments with fixed densities.

 

Which statement about test validity is correct?
A) Content validity is unrelated to the test purpose
B) Criterion validity reflects correlation with a gold standard measure
C) Reliability and validity are identical
D) Face validity guarantees accuracy
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Criterion validity compares a test with an accepted reference.

 

Which statement about test reliability is correct?
A) Reliability is the degree of agreement and consistency upon repeated measures
B) Reliability is the same as sensitivity
C) Reliability cannot be improved
D) Reliability ignores protocol standardization
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Test–retest agreement improves with consistent procedures.

 

Standard error of estimate in a prediction equation represents:
A) The average absolute error in kilograms
B) The spread of residuals around the regression line
C) The test’s face validity
D) The minimum number of subjects needed
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It quantifies typical prediction error for the equation.

 

A valid reason to terminate a graded exercise test immediately is:
A) Systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to two hundred fifty millimeters of mercury or diastolic greater than or equal to one hundred fifteen millimeters of mercury
B) Rate of perceived exertion of eleven on the six to twenty scale
C) Mildly elevated heart rate
D) Sweat on forehead
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Excessive blood pressure is a recognized termination threshold.

 

An abnormal blood pressure response that warrants test termination is:
A) A rise in systolic blood pressure with increasing workload
B) A drop in systolic blood pressure of ten millimeters of mercury or more with increased workload
C) Stable diastolic pressure within ten millimeters of mercury
D) Slight cuff artifact
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A drop in systolic pressure with rising workload suggests cardiac dysfunction.

 

When estimating maximal oxygen uptake from submaximal heart rate responses, one key assumption is that:
A) Heart rate and oxygen uptake are unrelated
B) Heart rate increases linearly with oxygen uptake at submaximal intensities
C) Stroke volume decreases with workload
D) Everyone has the same maximal heart rate
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Linear heart rate–oxygen uptake relationship underpins many submaximal predictions.

 

A common equation to estimate age-predicted maximal heart rate is:
A) Two hundred plus age
B) Two hundred twenty minus age
C) One hundred eighty minus age
D) Two hundred forty minus age
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Two hundred twenty minus age is a simple population estimate with large individual variability.

 

Heart rate reserve is defined as:
A) Maximal heart rate divided by resting heart rate
B) Maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate
C) Resting heart rate minus recovery heart rate
D) Peak heart rate during a stage
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It represents the usable range between rest and maximal heart rate.

 

A test of trunk flexibility commonly used in field settings is:
A) Sit-and-reach test
B) Vertical jump test
C) Star excursion test
D) Margaria stair test
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The sit-and-reach is a simple measure of hamstring and lower back flexibility.

 

Which improves the accuracy of a one repetition maximum test?
A) No warm-up and a single maximal attempt
B) Specific warm-up sets, correct spotting, and two to three minutes rest between near-maximal attempts
C) Changing exercises each trial
D) Testing to failure without supervision
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Standardized progression and safety support valid maximal effort.

 

Handgrip dynamometry primarily assesses:
A) Anaerobic capacity
B) Static strength of the forearm and hand
C) Aerobic endurance
D) Flexibility
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It measures isometric force production of the gripping muscles.

 

The Y-Balance or star excursion test primarily evaluates:
A) Shoulder mobility
B) Dynamic balance and lower-limb reach control
C) Maximal strength
D) Blood pressure regulation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Multi-directional reach challenges stability and motor control.

 

Which statement about test familiarization is correct?
A) It is unnecessary for simple tests
B) It reduces learning effects and improves reliability for skill-dependent tests
C) It lowers maximal effort
D) It invalidates results
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Practice reduces novelty and variability.

 

For power measurement on a cycle ergometer, mechanical power in watts equals:
A) Force times distance per revolution times cadence divided by six point twelve
B) Force times distance per revolution times cadence
C) Force divided by cadence
D) Cadence divided by force
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Power (W) = (kilopond × meters per revolution × revolutions per minute) ÷ 6.12.

 

On a standard cycle ergometer with a distance of six meters per revolution, a resistance of two kilopond at sixty revolutions per minute produces a power of about:
A) Sixty watts
B) Ninety watts
C) One hundred eighteen watts
D) Two hundred watts
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Two × six × sixty = seven hundred twenty kilogram-meter per minute; divided by 6.12 ≈ one hundred eighteen watts.

 

When converting treadmill speed, one mile per hour equals approximately:
A) Ten meters per minute
B) Twenty-six point eight meters per minute
C) Fifty meters per minute
D) One hundred meters per minute
Correct answer: B
Explanation: This conversion is used in metabolic cost equations.

 

Which factor most reduces error when using metabolic cost equations for walking or running?
A) Using them for any gait, including skipping
B) Applying them within their intended speed and grade ranges with steady-state movement
C) Applying them during rapid acceleration
D) Using them for stair climbing
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Equations assume steady state and specific gait and speed domains.

 

A normal oxygen uptake response at true maximal effort often includes:
A) A plateau in oxygen uptake despite further increases in workload
B) A decrease in heart rate
C) A drop in ventilation
D) A fall in respiratory exchange ratio
Correct answer: A
Explanation: A plateau is one classical criterion for maximal oxygen uptake in many but not all individuals.

 

Respiratory exchange ratio at or above one point ten during a graded test suggests:
A) Low effort
B) Near-maximal or maximal effort
C) Measurement failure
D) Immediate illness
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Values at or above one point ten indicate heavy reliance on anaerobic metabolism and hyperventilation at high effort.

 

Which variable is most useful to detect ventilatory threshold during a gas analysis test?
A) Resting heart rate
B) Nonlinear increase in ventilation relative to oxygen uptake
C) Body mass index
D) Sit-and-reach score
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Ventilation rises disproportionately to oxygen uptake as carbon dioxide output increases.

 

In clinical treadmill testing with electrocardiogram, a concerning sign is:
A) Upsloping mild ST depression at very high workloads only
B) Horizontal or downsloping ST depression of one millimeter or more in contiguous leads
C) T wave inversion in aVR only
D) Tall T waves in V3 during warm-up
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Horizontal or downsloping depression is a classic ischemic pattern.

 

Which of the following is a relative reason (depending on context) to stop a test?
A) Participant requests to stop
B) Drop in systolic blood pressure with increased workload
C) Increasing chest discomfort, severe shortness of breath, or signs of poor perfusion
D) Shoe lace untied
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Symptoms suggest risk and often warrant termination.

 

Standardization that most improves repeatability for submaximal cycle tests is to:
A) Allow any cadence
B) Use a fixed cadence such as fifty or sixty revolutions per minute and steady-state stages
C) Change the seat height each stage
D) Remove the warm-up
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Fixed cadence ensures that resistance determines workload.

 

Which practice improves safety during field tests in hot conditions?
A) Testing at midday without shade
B) Starting well hydrated, scheduling in cooler hours, and monitoring signs of heat illness
C) Wearing non-breathable clothing
D) Eliminating all rest and water breaks
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Heat stress management lowers risk.

 

When measuring waist circumference, the tape should be:
A) Angled and tight
B) Horizontal, snug but not compressing the skin, at a standard anatomical site
C) Placed over clothing
D) Stretched as tight as possible
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Consistent site and gentle tension reduce error.

 

A field test primarily used for anaerobic capacity over stairs is the:
A) Margaria–Kalamen stair test
B) Queens College step test
C) Cooper twelve-minute run
D) Beep test
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Time to ascend a set vertical distance at maximal effort estimates power.

 

When testing muscular endurance of the upper body with a push-up test, standardization should include:
A) Variable elbow depth
B) Consistent hand position, cadence or continuous pace, and proper technique to a set depth
C) Allowing hips to sag for more repetitions
D) Counting partial repetitions
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Clear technique criteria ensure fair scoring.

 

A simple static balance assessment is the:
A) Single-leg stance time with eyes open and closed
B) Vertical jump height
C) One repetition maximum deadlift
D) Treadmill time to exhaustion
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Time holding steady on one foot reflects postural control.

 

Muscular power differs from muscular strength because power emphasizes:
A) Absolute load regardless of time
B) Speed of force production (work per unit time)
C) Flexibility
D) Anaerobic threshold
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Power combines force and velocity.

 

Which device directly measures ground reaction forces during jump or landing tests?
A) Dynamometer
B) Force plate
C) Goniometer
D) Spirometer
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Force plates quantify force–time curves.

 

A manual goniometer is used to measure:
A) Heart rate
B) Joint range of motion
C) Power output
D) Oxygen uptake
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It quantifies angles at joints.

 

A key safety step before one repetition maximum testing is to:
A) Skip the warm-up to avoid fatigue
B) Provide a spotter, review technique, and clear the lifting area
C) Use maximal loads without collars
D) Hold breath throughout all attempts
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Preparation reduces injury risk.

 

Which test best reflects combined speed and agility?
A) Thirty-meter flying sprint
B) T-test
C) Sit-and-reach
D) Handgrip
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The T-test requires accelerations, decelerations, and lateral movements.

 

In a submaximal cycle test, steady state heart rate is typically defined as:
A) A change of less than five beats per minute between the second and third minute at the same workload
B) Any heart rate above one hundred beats per minute
C) A fixed heart rate of one hundred twenty beats per minute
D) A five-minute average
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Small change across minutes indicates steady state.

 

Which is the best practice for calibrating a gas analysis system before a test?
A) Skip calibration
B) Perform flow and gas concentration calibration with known reference values
C) Adjust settings after the test
D) Calibrate once per year
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Regular calibration against known standards ensures accuracy.

 

The respiratory exchange ratio is defined as:
A) Oxygen uptake divided by minute ventilation
B) Carbon dioxide output divided by oxygen uptake
C) Work rate divided by oxygen uptake
D) Ventilation divided by tidal volume
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It reflects substrate use and intensity during steady-state exercise.

 

Ventilatory threshold often occurs at approximately:
A) Ten percent of maximal oxygen uptake
B) Twenty-five percent of maximal oxygen uptake
C) Fifty to seventy percent of maximal oxygen uptake in many healthy adults
D) One hundred percent of maximal oxygen uptake
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The threshold varies but commonly lies in the moderate to heavy domain.

 

A normal oxygen pulse (oxygen uptake divided by heart rate) tends to:
A) Decrease linearly with workload
B) Increase with workload and plateau near maximal effort
C) Remain fixed across intensities
D) Be unrelated to stroke volume
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Oxygen pulse often reflects rising stroke volume and extraction.

 

Which practice best minimizes inter-tester skinfold error?
A) Measuring sites in random order
B) Using the same trained tester, standard anatomical sites, and repeated trials with the mean recorded
C) Rounding to the nearest five millimeters
D) Switching calipers mid-test
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Consistency and skill lower variability.

 

A meaningful change in a test score is best judged by:
A) The smallest possible difference
B) Exceeding the typical error or coefficient of variation of the test
C) Any change greater than zero
D) A single trial result
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Changes larger than measurement error are more likely real.

 

Which variable most strongly influences oxygen cost during level treadmill walking?
A) Body mass index
B) Walking speed
C) Shoe color
D) Time of day
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Metabolic cost rises nearly linearly with speed at level grade.

 

In a step test, increasing step height while keeping cadence constant will primarily:
A) Decrease work rate
B) Increase work rate and cardiorespiratory demand
C) Not change work rate
D) Decrease heart rate
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Greater vertical displacement raises external work.

 

A post-exercise heart rate measured exactly one minute after stopping a submaximal test is useful because:
A) It estimates joint range of motion
B) Faster recovery is generally associated with better cardiorespiratory fitness
C) It determines body fat directly
D) It replaces blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Heart rate recovery reflects autonomic reactivation and fitness.

 

Which is the most appropriate hydration guidance for typical submaximal field testing in temperate conditions?
A) Avoid drinking water before testing
B) Begin well hydrated and drink small amounts as needed
C) Drink only after testing
D) Only drink sports drinks
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Adequate hydration supports cardiovascular stability and thermoregulation.

 

A person with a recent change in chest discomfort suggestive of ischemia should:
A) Proceed with field testing if they feel like it
B) Be referred for medical evaluation before exercise testing
C) Do only flexibility testing
D) Skip consent
Correct answer: B
Explanation: New or unstable symptoms warrant medical clearance.

 

In a six-minute walk test, the primary outcome is:
A) Maximum sprint speed
B) Distance walked in six minutes
C) Peak power
D) Vertical jump height
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It assesses submaximal functional capacity.

 

For a timed up-and-go test, performance is primarily influenced by:
A) Upper-body strength only
B) Mobility, lower-body power, balance, and change-of-direction ability
C) Handgrip strength
D) Flexibility alone
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The test integrates multiple functional components.

 

True or false: Resting heart rate should be measured after the participant has been seated quietly for at least five minutes.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Rest reduces acute fluctuations and sympathetic activation.

​

True or false: Diastolic blood pressure normally increases markedly as workload rises in healthy people.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: It typically changes little (less than or equal to ten millimeters of mercury).

​

True or false: Participants must continue a test even if they ask to stop, to obtain valid results.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: The participant’s request to stop is an absolute termination criterion.

​

True or false: Submaximal heart rate–based predictions assume a linear relation between heart rate and oxygen uptake below the ventilatory threshold.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: This is a core assumption of many predictive protocols.

​

True or false: Treadmill running usually elicits a higher maximal oxygen uptake than cycle ergometry in untrained individuals.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: More muscle mass is engaged on the treadmill.

​

True or false: The Wingate anaerobic test is an aerobic endurance test.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: It assesses short-term anaerobic power and capacity.

​

True or false: Validity refers to whether a test measures what it is intended to measure.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: It is the accuracy of the measurement relative to the construct or criterion.

​

True or false: Reliability means that repeated measurements under the same conditions give similar results.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Consistency across trials indicates reliability.

​

True or false: Skinfold measures are completely independent of tester skill.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: Technique and experience affect accuracy.

​

True or false: A drop in systolic blood pressure with increasing workload is a concerning sign during graded exercise testing.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: It suggests impaired cardiac function or perfusion.

​

Fill in the blank: The six to twenty rating of perceived exertion scale is often used because it roughly parallels ____________________________ in healthy adults.
Correct answer: heart rate
Explanation: Multiplying rating by ten approximates heart rate in beats per minute.

​

Fill in the blank: Heart rate reserve is calculated as ____________________________ minus ____________________________.
Correct answer: maximal heart rate; resting heart rate
Explanation: The difference represents the usable range.

​

Fill in the blank: In a cycle ergometer, mechanical power (watts) equals (kilopond × meters per revolution × revolutions per minute) divided by ____________________________.
Correct answer: 6.12
Explanation: Six point one two converts kilogram-meter per minute to watts.

​

Fill in the blank: One mile per hour equals approximately ____________________________ meters per minute.
Correct answer: 26.8
Explanation: This is used to convert treadmill speeds.

​

Fill in the blank: The twenty-meter shuttle run is an ____________________________ field test to near maximal effort.
Correct answer: incremental, externally paced
Explanation: Pace increases by stage until volitional fatigue.

​

Fill in the blank: The primary field outcome of the six-minute walk test is ____________________________ covered in six minutes.
Correct answer: distance
Explanation: It is a measure of submaximal functional capacity.

 

Fill in the blank: A common reason to immediately terminate a test is the participant’s ____________________________ to stop.
Correct answer: request
Explanation: Safety and autonomy take precedence.

 

Fill in the blank: During normal graded exercise, ____________________________ blood pressure increases while ____________________________ blood pressure changes very little.
Correct answer: systolic; diastolic
Explanation: Cardiac output drives systolic pressure; diastolic is buffered by vasodilation.

 

Fill in the blank: The sit-and-reach test is commonly used to assess ____________________________ flexibility.
Correct answer: hamstring and lower back
Explanation: It targets posterior chain range of motion.

 

Fill in the blank: The T-test is a field measure of multi-directional ____________________________.
Correct answer: agility
Explanation: It requires forward, lateral, and backward movements.

 

Short answer: State two absolute reasons to stop a graded exercise test.
Correct answer: Participant asks to stop; severe chest pain or signs of poor perfusion; serious arrhythmia; drop in systolic blood pressure with increased workload; severe blood pressure elevation; or equipment failure.
Explanation: These indicate immediate risk or inability to continue safely.

 

Short answer: Give two practices that improve blood pressure measurement accuracy before testing.
Correct answer: Seat the person quietly for five minutes with feet flat; use correct cuff size; support the arm at heart level; avoid caffeine, exercise, or smoking thirty minutes prior.
Explanation: These reduce physiological and technical error.

 

Short answer: Describe how to estimate maximal oxygen uptake from a submaximal cycle test using steady-state heart rate.
Correct answer: Use at least two steady-state heart rates at known workloads, plot heart rate versus oxygen uptake (or workload), extend to age-predicted maximal heart rate, and read the corresponding oxygen uptake.
Explanation: Linear extrapolation underpins the method.

 

Short answer: List two advantages of treadmill testing and two advantages of cycle ergometer testing.
Correct answer: Treadmill—higher maximal oxygen uptake, familiar movement; Cycle—easier blood pressure and electrocardiogram measurement, precise workload control.
Explanation: Mode choice depends on purpose and population.

​

Short answer: Explain why standardizing cadence is important in submaximal cycle tests.
Correct answer: For a given resistance, cadence determines work rate; variable cadence alters oxygen cost and heart rate, increasing error.
Explanation: Fixed cadence ensures workload consistency.

​

Short answer: Provide one reason field tests are useful and one limitation compared with laboratory tests.
Correct answer: Useful—large groups can be tested with minimal equipment; Limitation—less control and lower accuracy than laboratory gas analysis.
Explanation: Trade-offs guide test selection.

​

Short answer: How can you reduce learning effects in agility testing?
Correct answer: Provide a standardized practice or familiarization session and clear instructions before recorded trials.
Explanation: Practice improves reliability.

​

Short answer: Why might treadmill testing be preferred over cycle testing for some apparently healthy adults?
Correct answer: Treadmill allows higher whole-body oxygen uptake and uses a familiar movement pattern for many people.
Explanation: More muscle mass is engaged.

​

Short answer: Give a practical strategy to ensure comparable environmental conditions across test days.
Correct answer: Test at the same time of day in a climate-controlled room with similar temperature, humidity, and noise, and document conditions.
Explanation: Environment affects physiological responses.

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Short answer: Provide one reason to include heart rate recovery in a test report.
Correct answer: Faster recovery is associated with better cardiorespiratory fitness and autonomic function, adding insight beyond peak values.
Explanation: Recovery kinetics carry prognostic and training information.