The primary goal of first aid is to:
A) Replace professional medical treatment entirely
B) Preserve life, prevent the condition from worsening, and promote recovery
C) Provide definitive diagnosis at the scene
D) Transport the person without assessment
Correct answer: B
Explanation: First aid aims to stabilize and support until advanced care is available.

​

When approaching a scene, the first action should be to:
A) Start chest compressions immediately
B) Apply a tourniquet
C) Ensure the scene is safe for the rescuer and others
D) Move the injured person
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Rescuer safety prevents additional victims and allows effective aid.

​

The correct order of assessment in an unresponsive adult is:
A) Check breathing → shout for help → check responsiveness
B) Check responsiveness → call for help/activate emergency response → check breathing and pulse
C) Call for help → check pulse → check bleeding
D) Check bleeding → check temperature → start compressions
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Rapid assessment and activation precede detailed checks.

​

High-quality chest compressions for adults are performed at a rate of:
A) 60 to 80 compressions per minute
B) 80 to 100 compressions per minute
C) 100 to 120 compressions per minute
D) Over 140 compressions per minute
Correct answer: C
Explanation: This rate optimizes perfusion during cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

​

The recommended depth of adult chest compressions is:
A) About 2 centimeters
B) About 3 centimeters
C) At least 5 centimeters but not more than 6 centimeters
D) Over 8 centimeters
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Adequate depth improves blood flow without excessive injury risk.

​

Allowing full chest recoil between compressions is important because it:
A) Increases respiratory rate
B) Maximizes venous return to the heart
C) Prevents gastric inflation
D) Cools the myocardium
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Recoil permits the heart to refill, improving output.

 

If an adult is unresponsive and not breathing normally, the bystander should first:
A) Look for medical bracelets for two minutes
B) Leave to get help without calling
C) Activate emergency response and get an automated external defibrillator if available
D) Give water
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Early activation and defibrillator access are critical links in survival.

​

An automated external defibrillator analyzes rhythm and advises a shock for:
A) Ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia
B) Asystole
C) Normal sinus rhythm
D) Any slow rhythm
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Automated external defibrillators treat shockable cardiac arrest rhythms.

​

When using an automated external defibrillator on an adult, the pads should be placed:
A) One on the left wrist and one on the right wrist
B) Anterolateral on the chest (right upper chest and left lateral chest)
C) Both over the sternum
D) One on the neck and one on the abdomen
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Standard pad placement optimizes current through the heart.

​

If an automated external defibrillator says “no shock advised,” the rescuer should:
A) Remove the pads
B) Immediately resume chest compressions
C) Wait two minutes without action
D) Give water to the person
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Nonshockable rhythms require continued cardiopulmonary resuscitation cycles.

​

The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation is:
A) 15 compressions to 2 breaths
B) 30 compressions to 2 breaths
C) 50 compressions to 5 breaths
D) 10 compressions to 1 breath
Correct answer: B
Explanation: This ratio balances circulation and ventilation for adults.

​

Rescue breaths for an adult with a pulse but inadequate breathing should be delivered:
A) One breath every 2 seconds
B) One breath every 5 to 6 seconds
C) One breath every 10 seconds
D) Continuous rapid breaths
Correct answer: B
Explanation: This supports ventilation without hyperventilation.

​

The best way to open the airway in an unresponsive adult without suspected spinal injury is:
A) Jaw thrust without head tilt
B) Head-tilt chin-lift
C) Neck flexion
D) Lift by the teeth
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Head-tilt chin-lift opens the airway effectively when spinal injury is not suspected.

​

If spinal injury is suspected, the preferred airway maneuver is:
A) Head-tilt chin-lift
B) Jaw thrust without head tilt
C) Neck rotation
D) Cricoid pressure only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Jaw thrust minimizes cervical spine movement.

​

For an adult, each rescue breath should be delivered over:
A) 0.5 seconds
B) 1 second, enough to see chest rise
C) 3 seconds
D) 5 seconds
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Slow, visible chest rise reduces gastric inflation and improves oxygenation.

​

An effective way to relieve severe airway obstruction in a conscious adult is:
A) Back slaps only
B) Abdominal thrusts (also called the Heimlich maneuver)
C) Chest compressions only
D) Giving a drink of water
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Abdominal thrusts increase intrathoracic pressure to expel the object.

​

For a conscious pregnant person with severe choking, the preferred technique is:
A) Abdominal thrusts
B) Chest thrusts
C) Back blows only
D) No intervention
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Chest thrusts avoid pressure on the uterus and are safer.

​

If a choking adult becomes unresponsive, the rescuer should:
A) Perform blind finger sweeps repeatedly
B) Start chest compressions and check the mouth between cycles for visible objects
C) Give large volumes of water
D) Use only back slaps
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Compressions can dislodge the object; only remove visible material.

​

For severe external bleeding from a limb that does not stop with direct pressure, the next step is to:
A) Elevate and wait
B) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound according to training
C) Apply ice only
D) Use a narrow cord to tie tightly
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Proper tourniquet use can control life-threatening bleeding.

​

First aid for a suspected long-bone fracture includes:
A) Forcing the limb straight
B) Splinting the limb in the position found and controlling bleeding
C) Removing all clothing and moving the person immediately
D) Applying heat directly
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Splinting prevents further injury; bleeding control is prioritized.

​

For a thermal burn with intact skin, the initial first aid measure is to:
A) Apply ice directly
B) Cool the burn with cool running water for several minutes
C) Apply butter or grease
D) Pop blisters
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Cooling limits thermal injury; ice and home remedies may worsen damage.

​

Signs of severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) may include:
A) Localized mild rash only
B) Wheezing, swelling of the face or tongue, trouble breathing, low blood pressure
C) Only sneezing
D) Only mild itch
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Multisystem involvement with airway or circulation compromise defines severity.

​

First aid for suspected anaphylaxis includes:
A) Waiting to see if it improves
B) Immediate use of an epinephrine auto-injector if available and activation of emergency response
C) Giving antihistamine only
D) Applying a tourniquet
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Epinephrine is first-line treatment and should not be delayed.

​

For suspected stroke, the most important first aid action is to:
A) Give food and drink
B) Perform complex neurological tests
C) Recognize signs (for example, facial droop, arm weakness, speech difficulty) and activate emergency services promptly
D) Wait an hour
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Early recognition and transport are time-critical.

​

For a person with heat exhaustion, appropriate first aid includes:
A) Immediate ice bath only
B) Move to a cooler place, remove excess clothing, and give cool fluids if alert
C) Withhold fluids
D) Force intense exercise to acclimate
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Cooling and hydration usually resolve heat exhaustion.

​

For suspected heat stroke (high temperature with central nervous system symptoms), first aid should prioritize:
A) Slow cooling over hours
B) Rapid cooling (for example, cold water immersion if available) and emergency activation
C) Withhold cooling to avoid shock
D) Encourage running to sweat
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Heat stroke is life-threatening and requires rapid cooling and advanced care.

​

For hypothermia, first aid should:
A) Rub limbs vigorously
B) Move to a warm environment, remove wet clothing, insulate, and handle gently
C) Apply ice packs
D) Give large amounts of alcohol
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Gentle rewarming and insulation are key; rough handling can cause arrhythmias.

​

An adult with suspected heart attack classically reports:
A) Brief, stabbing pain lasting one second
B) Pressure or tightness in chest possibly radiating, with sweating or nausea
C) Only foot pain
D) Only ear pain
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Typical ischemic symptoms warrant urgent evaluation.

​

A person with known low blood sugar who is awake and can swallow should receive:
A) Insulin
B) A fast source of sugar (for example, glucose tablets or juice)
C) Water only
D) High-protein foods only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Rapid carbohydrate corrects symptomatic hypoglycemia.

​

For a knocked-out tooth (permanent), first aid includes:
A) Scrubbing the root
B) Keeping the tooth moist in milk or saline and seeking urgent dental care
C) Letting it dry
D) Holding it by the root
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Keeping cells alive on the root surface improves re-implantation success.

​

In a bleeding nose without major trauma, first aid is:
A) Tilt head back and pack deep into the nose
B) Lean forward and pinch the soft part of the nose for several minutes
C) Lie flat
D) Blow forcefully
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Forward lean prevents blood swallowing; pressure helps stop bleeding.

​

The recovery position for a breathing, unresponsive adult is used to:
A) Prevent spinal movement
B) Maintain an open airway and allow fluids to drain
C) Increase blood pressure
D) Restrict breathing
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Lateral positioning reduces airway obstruction risk.

​

During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, interruptions to chest compressions should be:
A) Frequent to allow rescuer rest
B) Less than 10 seconds whenever possible
C) At least 30 seconds between cycles
D) After each compression
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Minimizing pauses improves coronary and cerebral perfusion.

​

When two trained rescuers provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation for an infant, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is:
A) 30 compressions to 2 breaths
B) 15 compressions to 2 breaths
C) 50 compressions to 5 breaths
D) Continuous compressions without breaths
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Two-rescuer pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation uses 15 to 2.

​

For infants, chest compressions are delivered with:
A) One hand on the sternum
B) Two fingers just below the nipple line on the sternum for a single rescuer (or two-thumb encircling technique for two rescuers)
C) Elbows
D) The heel of both hands
Correct answer: B
Explanation: These techniques achieve appropriate depth and control for small chests.

​

The recommended compression depth for infants is:
A) About 1 centimeter
B) About one third the anterior–posterior diameter of the chest (approximately 4 centimeters)
C) 6 centimeters
D) As deep as possible
Correct answer: B
Explanation: One third chest depth ensures effective perfusion.

​

A sign of effective ventilation during cardiopulmonary resuscitation is:
A) Excessive chest rise and gastric distention
B) Visible chest rise with each breath and avoidance of over-ventilation
C) No chest movement
D) Loud air leak
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Gentle breaths that produce chest rise reduce complications.

​

In advanced cardiovascular life support, high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation includes targeting an end-tidal carbon dioxide of at least:
A) 5 millimeters of mercury
B) 10 millimeters of mercury
C) 25 millimeters of mercury
D) 60 millimeters of mercury
Correct answer: B
Explanation: End-tidal carbon dioxide below 10 during cardiac arrest suggests poor perfusion and low likelihood of

successful resuscitation unless improved.

​

The first medication recommended for adult cardiac arrest of nonperfusing rhythms is commonly:
A) Atropine
B) Epinephrine one milligram through a vein or into bone every three to five minutes
C) Dopamine
D) Lidocaine only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Epinephrine supports coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.

​

For shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia in advanced cardiovascular life support, an antiarrhythmic that may be used is:
A) Amiodarone
B) Atropine
C) Adenosine
D) Verapamil
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Amiodarone may be given after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory shockable rhythms.

​

Synchronized cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronized shocks for:
A) Ventricular fibrillation
B) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
C) Unstable supraventricular tachycardia with a pulse
D) Asystole
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Synchronization avoids delivering a shock during the vulnerable repolarization period in organized tachyarrhythmias.

​

Atropine is indicated primarily for:
A) Ventricular fibrillation
B) Profound symptomatic slow heart rhythm (bradycardia)
C) Pulseless electrical activity
D) Stable narrow complex tachycardia
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Atropine blocks vagal tone and can increase heart rate.

​

When advanced airway placement is achieved during resuscitation, ventilation should be delivered:
A) One breath every 2 to 3 seconds with pauses in compressions
B) One breath every 6 seconds with continuous compressions
C) Continuous rapid breaths with frequent pauses
D) Only after each shock
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Continuous compressions with asynchronous breaths support gas exchange without interrupting circulation.

​

Return of spontaneous circulation is suggested by:
A) Persistently flat capnography
B) Abrupt sustained increase in end-tidal carbon dioxide and signs of life such as a palpable pulse
C) Continued unconsciousness
D) Decreased oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: End-tidal carbon dioxide rise and pulse indicate perfusion restoration.

​

Post–return of spontaneous circulation care should prioritize:
A) Immediate discharge
B) Airway, breathing, blood pressure optimization, targeted oxygen levels, and prompt cause evaluation
C) Withhold oxygen
D) Hyperventilation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Stabilization and addressing causes improve outcomes.

​

Identifying reversible causes of cardiac arrest often uses the “Hs and Ts,” which include:
A) Only hypoglycemia and tension pneumothorax
B) A group of common causes such as hypoxia, hypovolemia, hydrogen ion (acidosis), hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia; tension pneumothorax, tamponade, toxins, thrombosis pulmonary, thrombosis coronary
C) Only trauma
D) Only toxins
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Systematic search for reversible causes guides targeted treatment.

​

For opioid overdose with weak or absent breathing, first aid and basic life support recommend:
A) Only watching and waiting
B) Rescue breathing, cardiopulmonary resuscitation if no pulse, and use of naloxone if available
C) Giving alcohol
D) Placing in a hot bath
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Airway support and naloxone can reverse life-threatening respiratory depression.

​

During defibrillation for ventricular fibrillation, the most important factor is:
A) The exact defibrillator brand
B) Minimizing chest compression interruptions before and after shocks
C) Choosing the longest analysis time
D) Turning off capnography
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Continuous high-quality compressions maintain perfusion and improve shock success.

​

For drowning victims, the initial emphasis is on:
A) Abdominal thrusts
B) Immediate rescue breathing and chest compressions if needed
C) Draining water from lungs by hanging upside down
D) Withholding breaths until on land
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Ventilation is critical because hypoxia is the primary problem.

​

Pale, cool, sweaty skin with a weak rapid pulse after injury suggests:
A) Heat stroke
B) Circulatory shock
C) Hypoglycemia alone
D) Migraine
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Signs point to inadequate perfusion.

​

For an open chest wound with bubbling air, first aid includes:
A) Occlusive dressing taped on three sides if trained, monitoring breathing, and activating emergency response
B) Packing deep with gauze and sealing on all sides regardless
C) Ignoring until later
D) Applying ice
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Three-sided seal can reduce air entry while allowing some air to escape.

​

For suspected spinal injury after trauma with a breathing person, first aid includes:
A) Twisting the head to align it
B) Manual stabilization of the head and neck in the position found and preventing movement
C) Flexing the neck for comfort
D) Forcing the person to stand
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Limiting motion reduces risk of spinal cord damage.

​

For a chemical splash in the eye, first aid is to:
A) Cover both eyes and wait
B) Rinse the affected eye with clean water continuously for at least 15 minutes
C) Apply ointment
D) Rub the eye
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Immediate irrigation reduces tissue damage.

​

For frostbite, appropriate first aid includes:
A) Rubbing the area to warm it
B) Rapid rewarming in warm (not hot) water and protecting from refreezing
C) Using dry heat directly (for example, stove)
D) Walking on frozen feet to restore circulation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Controlled rewarming prevents further injury; rubbing causes tissue damage.

​

A person with chest discomfort becomes unresponsive and gasps occasionally; this breathing is most consistent with:
A) Normal breathing
B) Agonal breathing, which is not normal and indicates need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C) Sleep apnea
D) Hyperventilation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Agonal gasps occur in cardiac arrest; treat as no normal breathing.

​

A common sign of internal bleeding after trauma is:
A) Bright red bleeding from the skin
B) Bruising, swelling, and signs of shock without external bleeding
C) Itching only
D) Ear ringing only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Internal hemorrhage may show indirect signs.

​

For a person with severe asthma attack who has an inhaler, first aid is to:
A) Withhold medication
B) Assist with their prescribed inhaler and monitor breathing while activating emergency response if severe
C) Give sedatives
D) Force running for conditioning
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Prompt use of prescribed medication may relieve bronchospasm.

​

True or false: Hands-only cardiopulmonary resuscitation (compressions without breaths) for an adult by an untrained bystander is recommended until a defibrillator or trained help arrives.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Continuous compressions are easier to teach and maintain perfusion in adult sudden collapse.

​

True or false: Checking for a pulse should take no more than 10 seconds during basic life support.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Delays reduce perfusion and defibrillation opportunities.

​

True or false: During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, frequent ventilation with large volumes improves survival.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: Overventilation increases intrathoracic pressure and reduces venous return.

​

True or false: An automated external defibrillator can be used safely on a wet surface if the chest is dried and pads adhere.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Avoid standing in water; dry the chest to ensure pad adherence and shock delivery.

​

True or false: Do not place automated external defibrillator pads over a medication patch; remove the patch and wipe the area first.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Patches can interfere with pad contact and may cause burns.

​

True or false: For an adult, compression-only cardiopulmonary resuscitation is never acceptable.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: It is acceptable and recommended for untrained rescuers of adult sudden collapse.

​

True or false: In advanced cardiovascular life support, epinephrine is given for shockable and nonshockable cardiac arrest rhythms.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Epinephrine is used broadly in cardiac arrest regardless of rhythm type.

​

True or false: For a person with hypothermia, rough handling can precipitate dangerous heart rhythms.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Gentle handling reduces arrhythmia risk.

​

True or false: In severe bleeding, direct pressure is the first-line method of control.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Direct pressure is effective and simple.

​

True or false: In a person with suspected stroke, giving anything by mouth is recommended while waiting for help.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: Swallowing may be impaired; avoid oral intake.

​

Fill in the blank: Adult chest compressions should be performed at a rate of ____________________________ to ____________________________ per minute.
Correct answer: 100; 120
Explanation: This rate supports adequate perfusion.

​

Fill in the blank: Adult chest compression depth should be at least ____________________________ centimeters but not more than ____________________________ centimeters.
Correct answer: 5; 6
Explanation: This depth targets effective circulation with safety.

​

Fill in the blank: The first step when using an automated external defibrillator is to turn it ____________________________ and follow the prompts.
Correct answer: on
Explanation: Voice and visual prompts guide rescuers.

​

Fill in the blank: The ratio of compressions to breaths for single-rescuer adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation is ____________________________ to ____________________________.
Correct answer: 30; 2
Explanation: Standard adult ratio.

​

Fill in the blank: The airway maneuver recommended when spinal injury is suspected is the ____________________________ thrust.
Correct answer: jaw
Explanation: Jaw thrust limits neck movement.

​

Fill in the blank: In advanced cardiovascular life support, reversible causes of cardiac arrest are remembered as the “____________________________ and ____________________________.”
Correct answer: Hs; Ts
Explanation: They organize common, treatable causes.

​

Fill in the blank: Return of spontaneous circulation is often accompanied by a sudden rise in ____________________________ carbon dioxide.
Correct answer: end-tidal
Explanation: Improved circulation increases exhaled carbon dioxide.

​

Fill in the blank: For severe allergic reaction, the first-line medication is ____________________________.
Correct answer: epinephrine
Explanation: Epinephrine treats airway swelling and shock.

​

Fill in the blank: For eye chemical exposure, irrigate with clean water for at least ____________________________ minutes.
Correct answer: 15
Explanation: Prolonged irrigation reduces damage.

​

Fill in the blank: The lateral ____________________________ position helps maintain an open airway in an unresponsive breathing person.
Correct answer: recovery
Explanation: Recovery position reduces obstruction risk.

​

Short answer: Describe the steps a lone rescuer should take upon witnessing an adult collapse in public.
Correct answer: Ensure scene safety, check responsiveness, shout for help, activate emergency response and get an automated external defibrillator, check breathing and pulse quickly, start chest compressions if no normal breathing and no pulse, and use the automated external defibrillator as soon as it arrives.
Explanation: Early activation, compressions, and defibrillation are the priorities.

​

Short answer: Explain why minimizing interruptions in chest compressions is important during resuscitation.
Correct answer: Interruptions reduce coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure, lower the likelihood of successful defibrillation, and decrease survival; continuous compressions maintain blood flow.
Explanation: Perfusion pressure decays quickly when compressions stop.

​

Short answer: List three signs that suggest severe airway obstruction in a conscious adult.
Correct answer: Inability to speak, ineffective cough or silent airway, high-pitched noises or no sound, cyanosis, and the universal choking sign.
Explanation: These indicate critical blockage requiring immediate action.

​

Short answer: Outline key elements of post–return of spontaneous circulation care.
Correct answer: Secure airway and breathing, optimize oxygenation and ventilation, maintain blood pressure and temperature, obtain electrocardiogram, identify and treat the underlying cause, and consider advanced interventions as indicated.
Explanation: Stabilization and targeted treatment improve outcomes.

​

Short answer: Provide safe first aid steps for a suspected ankle sprain.
Correct answer: Stop activity, protect and rest the joint, apply cold for short intervals, compress with an elastic wrap, elevate, and seek evaluation if severe pain, deformity, or inability to bear weight.
Explanation: These measures limit swelling and pain.

​

Short answer: Describe how to use an epinephrine auto-injector for suspected anaphylaxis.
Correct answer: Remove cap, press firmly against the outer thigh at a right angle (through clothing if needed), hold in place for the recommended time, massage the area, and activate emergency response; repeat as directed if symptoms persist.
Explanation: Prompt intramuscular epinephrine is life-saving.

​

Short answer: State two reasons to prefer chest thrusts over abdominal thrusts in some choking people.
Correct answer: Pregnancy and marked obesity; chest thrusts avoid pressure on the abdomen and uterus.
Explanation: Safer and effective alternatives.

​

Short answer: Explain why overventilation is harmful during advanced cardiovascular life support.
Correct answer: Excess ventilation raises intrathoracic pressure, reduces venous return and cardiac output, and can worsen outcomes; it also dilutes carbon dioxide, reducing cerebral blood flow.
Explanation: Controlled ventilation is essential.

​

Short answer: Give two reasons why a defibrillator pad should not be placed directly over an implanted pacemaker or defibrillator.
Correct answer: It can reduce shock effectiveness and damage the device; place pads at least a few centimeters away and in an alternative position.
Explanation: Proper pad placement ensures current path and device safety.

​

Short answer: Describe safe first aid for a penetrating object in an extremity.
Correct answer: Do not remove the object; stabilize it with bulky dressings, control bleeding with direct pressure around it, and seek emergency care.
Explanation: Removal may worsen bleeding; stabilization prevents further damage.