A sprain is best defined as an injury to the:
A) Muscle belly
B) Tendon
C) Ligament
D) Nerve
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Sprains involve overstretching or tearing of ligaments, whereas strains involve muscle or tendon tissue.

 

A strain is best defined as an injury to the:
A) Ligament
B) Cartilage
C) Muscle or tendon
D) Nerve root
Correct answer: C
 

Explanation: Strains affect contractile tissues such as muscle fibers or their tendons.

Which is the correct order of the three major phases of soft tissue healing?
A) Proliferation → Inflammation → Remodeling
B) Inflammation → Proliferation → Remodeling
C) Remodeling → Inflammation → Proliferation
D) Inflammation → Remodeling → Proliferation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Healing begins with inflammation, then proliferative repair, and finishes with remodeling.

 

A grade I lateral ankle sprain most commonly injures the:
A) Deltoid ligament
B) Calcaneofibular ligament only
C) Anterior talofibular ligament
D) Posterior talofibular ligament
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Inversion injuries often first stress the anterior talofibular ligament.

 

A medial (eversion) ankle sprain primarily injures the:
A) Deltoid ligament complex
B) Anterior talofibular ligament
C) Plantar fascia
D) Peroneal tendons
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Eversion forces stress the strong deltoid ligament on the medial side.

 

Which finding most strongly suggests Achilles tendon rupture?
A) Pain at the heel pad only
B) Positive calf squeeze test with no plantarflexion
C) Pain with passive dorsiflexion only
D) Heel blisters after running
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Lack of ankle plantarflexion during a calf squeeze indicates a torn Achilles tendon.

 

True or false: An athlete with suspected concussion should be removed from play immediately and evaluated.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Immediate removal reduces risk of further brain injury and allows proper assessment.

 

True or false: An athlete who had concussion symptoms should return to the same game if symptoms resolve in ten minutes.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: Same-day return is not advised; graded return follows medical clearance.

 

Fill in the blank: The three major phases of soft tissue healing are ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________.
Correct answer: inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling
Explanation: These phases describe the time course of tissue repair.

 

A stress fracture is best characterized by:
A) Sudden bone failure after one impact
B) Insidious onset of focal bony tenderness that worsens with activity
C) Pain only at rest without activity relation
D) Numbness without pain
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Repetitive loading exceeds remodeling capacity, causing focal bone stress injury.

 

Initial management of an acute muscle strain most appropriately emphasizes:
A) Heat, deep massage, and aggressive stretching
B) Rest, cold application, compression, and elevation
C) Running through the pain
D) Immediate maximal strengthening
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Early care limits bleeding and swelling while protecting the tissue.

 

Patellofemoral pain syndrome is classically described as:
A) Sharp lateral knee pain with varus stress
B) Diffuse anterior knee pain worse with stairs or prolonged sitting
C) Medial joint line locking
D) Pain only at rest
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Retropatellar stress increases during stair climbing and sitting.

 

Iliotibial band friction syndrome most often presents as:
A) Medial knee pain
B) Lateral knee pain near the femoral epicondyle during running
C) Posterior knee swelling
D) Anterior knee locking
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The band rubs over the lateral femoral condyle with repetitive flexion–extension.

 

Medial tibial stress syndrome is commonly known as:
A) Plantar fasciitis
B) Shin splints with diffuse medial tibial pain
C) Achilles tendinopathy
D) Compartment syndrome
Correct answer: B
Explanation: It produces exercise-related, diffuse pain along the posteromedial tibia.

 

Which symptom is a red flag for acute compartment syndrome?
A) Itching at night
B) Pain out of proportion and pain with passive stretch
C) Only mild soreness after activity
D) Bruising that resolves in one day
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Severe pain, pain with passive stretch, and neurologic changes signal urgency.

 

Anatomical snuffbox tenderness after a fall on an outstretched hand suggests injury to the:
A) Ulna
B) Radius shaft
C) Scaphoid
D) Lunate
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The scaphoid lies in the snuffbox and is commonly fractured.

 

After an anterior shoulder dislocation, the nerve most at risk is the:
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Axillary nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Radial nerve
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The axillary nerve wraps around the surgical neck of the humerus.

 

The most commonly torn rotator cuff tendon is the:
A) Subscapularis
B) Teres minor
C) Supraspinatus
D) Infraspinatus
Correct answer: C
Explanation: The supraspinatus is frequently impinged and torn.

 

A superior labrum anterior-to-posterior tear often occurs with:
A) Direct blow to the shin
B) Repetitive overhead throwing or traction on the biceps anchor
C) Lateral ankle inversion
D) Toe stub
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The biceps long head attaches to the superior labrum and can traction it.

 

Injury commonly called “skier’s thumb” involves the:
A) Radial collateral ligament of the thumb
B) Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb
C) Flexor pollicis longus tendon
D) Extensor pollicis longus tendon
Correct answer: B
Explanation: A valgus force at the first metacarpophalangeal joint injures the ulnar collateral ligament.

 

“Jersey finger” is a disruption of the:
A) Extensor tendon at the distal phalanx
B) Flexor digitorum profundus tendon
C) Flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
D) Palmar interossei
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The distal finger cannot actively flex when the deep flexor avulses.

 

“Mallet finger” is caused by injury to the:
A) Extensor tendon at the distal phalanx
B) Flexor digitorum profundus
C) Flexor retinaculum
D) Thenar muscles
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Loss of terminal extension results from extensor disruption.

 

A known risk factor for hamstring strain is:
A) High eccentric hamstring strength
B) Prior hamstring injury
C) Daily stretching habit
D) Low running speed
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Previous injury increases risk due to residual weakness or scar.

 

A possible complication of severe quadriceps contusion is:
A) Myositis ossificans
B) Tendon rupture of the biceps
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Plantar wart
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Heterotopic bone can form within the muscle after trauma.

 

An acromioclavicular joint sprain typically presents with:
A) Pain at the sternum
B) Step-off deformity and pain at the lateral clavicle
C) Elbow pain only
D) Painless swelling of the wrist
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The distal clavicle elevates with acromioclavicular ligament injury.

 

Plantar fasciitis pain is usually worst:
A) At the end of a long run only
B) With first steps in the morning or after rest
C) During deep squats
D) Only while seated
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The plantar fascia shortens during rest and is painful when first loaded.

 

Osgood–Schlatter disease is:
A) A tibial tuberosity traction apophysitis in youth
B) A partial tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
C) A hip labral tear
D) A muscular dystrophy
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Repetitive traction from the patellar tendon irritates the tibial tubercle growth plate.

 

Sever disease refers to:
A) Calcaneal apophysitis in youth
B) Achilles rupture in adults
C) Plantar fascia tear
D) Cuboid fracture
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Heel pain in active children often reflects traction at the calcaneal growth plate.

 

Spondylolysis is most associated with:
A) Repeated spinal flexion
B) Repeated lumbar extension and rotation in adolescents
C) Only heavy deadlifting once
D) Ankle sprains
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Pars interarticularis stress fractures are linked to extension–rotation sports.

 

True or false: Lumbar disc herniation pain commonly worsens with forward bending and sitting.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Flexion increases disc pressure and may aggravate radicular symptoms.

 

Lateral elbow tendinopathy (“tennis elbow”) classically presents with pain during:
A) Wrist flexion and pronation
B) Wrist extension and gripping
C) Shoulder abduction
D) Neck rotation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The extensor carpi radialis brevis is stressed with gripping and extension.

 

Medial elbow tendinopathy (“golfer’s elbow”) typically hurts with:
A) Supination only
B) Wrist flexion and forearm pronation
C) Wrist extension
D) Shoulder adduction
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Flexor–pronator origin is symptomatic with these actions.

 

Shoulder impingement is often worsened by:
A) Overhead internal rotation with poor scapular upward rotation
B) Elbow flexion to ninety degrees
C) Forearm pronation
D) Wrist extension
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Scapular motion deficits can narrow the subacromial space.

 

A typical noncontact mechanism of anterior cruciate ligament injury is:
A) Hyperextension with valgus and rotation during deceleration
B) Direct blow to the posterior tibia
C) Pure varus stress with foot planted
D) Axial distraction
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Cutting and landing with valgus collapse and rotation strain the anterior cruciate ligament.

 

Posterior cruciate ligament injury often results from:
A) Landing from a jump
B) A blow to the anterior tibia with the knee flexed (dashboard mechanism)
C) Valgus stress in a side step
D) Hyperabduction
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Posterior translation of the tibia against the femur injures the posterior cruciate ligament.

 

A valgus stress to the knee commonly injures the:
A) Lateral collateral ligament
B) Medial collateral ligament
C) Posterior cruciate ligament
D) Popliteus tendon
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Valgus force stresses the medial collateral ligament.

 

Meniscal tears often present with:
A) Diffuse anterior knee ache only
B) Joint line tenderness, swelling, or mechanical catching
C) Pain only at rest
D) Instant bruising without swelling
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The meniscus can cause mechanical symptoms and joint line pain.

 

The purpose of the Ottawa ankle rules is to:
A) Replace physical examination
B) Identify when radiographs are indicated after ankle injury
C) Diagnose ligament tears definitively
D) Choose footwear
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The rules guide imaging decisions to reduce unnecessary radiographs.

 

Heat stroke is most clearly distinguished from heat exhaustion by:
A) Muscle cramps
B) Elevated core temperature with central nervous system dysfunction
C) Mild thirst
D) Normal mental status
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Heat stroke features dangerously high core temperature and neurological impairment.

 

Exertional hyponatremia is most often associated with:
A) Excessive intake of plain water with inadequate sodium
B) Not drinking at all
C) Eating salty foods during exercise
D) Wearing extra clothing
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Overconsumption of hypotonic fluids dilutes plasma sodium.

 

Hypothermia first-aid priorities include:
A) Rubbing cold tissue vigorously
B) Removing wet clothing, insulation, and gradual rewarming
C) Immediate hot shower for all cases
D) Encouraging sprinting
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Gentle handling and controlled rewarming are essential.

 

Frostbite field care should:
A) Rub the tissue to restore circulation
B) Rewarm in warm water and protect from refreezing
C) Apply ice directly
D) Pop blisters
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Gentle water rewarming and prevention of refreezing reduce damage.

 

To help prevent foot blisters, athletes should:
A) Wear cotton socks only
B) Reduce friction and moisture using proper socks and fit
C) Avoid trimming toenails
D) Run only on concrete
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Wicking materials, lubrication, and good fit reduce shear and moisture.

 

Compared with medial tibial stress syndrome, a tibial stress fracture more often shows:
A) Diffuse tenderness
B) Focal point tenderness and pain with hopping
C) Pain that improves with running
D) Pain only at night
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Stress fractures have localized pain and often pain on hopping.

 

A common neurologic complication after anterior shoulder dislocation is:
A) Median nerve palsy
B) Axillary nerve palsy with deltoid weakness
C) Ulnar nerve palsy only
D) Sciatic nerve palsy
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Axillary nerve injury causes deltoid weakness and sensory loss laterally.

 

A “stinger” or “burner” is best described as:
A) Bilateral leg numbness after a fall
B) Transient unilateral arm burning pain or numbness from brachial plexus traction
C) Chronic neck fracture
D) Wrist sprain
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Lateral neck bending compresses or stretches the brachial plexus.

 

True or false: Midline cervical spine tenderness after collision warrants immobilization and medical evaluation.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Midline tenderness is a red flag for possible serious neck injury.

 

An avulsed permanent tooth should ideally be:
A) Scrubbed clean and left to dry
B) Reimplanted quickly or stored in milk or saline for urgent dental care
C) Wrapped in tissue paper
D) Placed in the athlete’s pocket
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Moist storage or prompt reimplantation improves survival.

 

First aid for uncomplicated anterior nosebleed includes:
A) Leaning back and pinching the bony bridge
B) Leaning forward and pinching the soft part of the nose
C) Tilting head to the side and applying heat
D) Packing with dirt
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Forward lean prevents swallowing blood; pinching the soft nose compresses the bleeding site.

 

Presence of blood in the front of the eye after trauma (hyphema) indicates:
A) Simple conjunctivitis
B) An ocular emergency requiring urgent evaluation
C) A benign eyelid bruise
D) Dry eye
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Hyphema can threaten vision and needs urgent care.

 

Eccentric hamstring strengthening, such as the Nordic exercise, is included to:
A) Increase static flexibility only
B) Reduce hamstring strain risk and recurrence
C) Train calf endurance
D) Replace running
Correct answer: B
Explanation: High-load eccentric training improves injury resilience.

 

For tendinopathy, the central exercise approach is:
A) Complete rest until painless for months
B) Progressive loading within tolerable pain
C) Only stretching
D) Surgical repair immediately
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Tendons adapt to carefully progressed mechanical loading.

 

Achilles tendinopathy typically presents with:
A) Sudden snap and a palpable gap
B) Gradual onset tendon pain, often worse with loading
C) Painless swelling only
D) Pain exclusively at night
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Overuse causes activity-related tendon pain and stiffness.

 

Patellar tendon tendinopathy pain is most often located at the:
A) Lateral patella
B) Inferior pole of the patella
C) Tibial plateau
D) Popliteal fossa
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The tendon–bone junction at the inferior pole is commonly symptomatic.

 

Posterior shoulder dislocation is classically associated with:
A) Seizure or electric shock
B) Tennis serve
C) Underhand throw
D) Cycling
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Forceful internal rotation and adduction can push the humeral head posteriorly.

 

Rapid mileage increase on hard surfaces most increases risk for:
A) Plantar warts
B) Bone stress injury
C) Meniscal tear
D) Shoulder dislocation
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Bone needs gradual progression to remodel to higher loads.

 

A high ankle sprain (syndesmotic injury) mechanism often involves:
A) Plantarflexion and inversion
B) Dorsiflexion with external rotation of the foot
C) Pure eversion only
D) Hyperextension of the toes
Correct answer: B
Explanation: This stresses the distal tibiofibular ligaments.

 

“Turf toe” refers to a sprain of the:
A) First metatarsophalangeal joint with hyperextension
B) Fifth toe nail bed
C) Plantar fascia origin
D) Tarsal tunnel
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Forced dorsiflexion of the big toe joint sprains the plantar structures.

 

Concussion red flags requiring urgent evaluation include:
A) Mild fatigue only
B) Worsening headache, repeated vomiting, seizure, or unequal pupils
C) Thirst and hunger
D) Sore calf
Correct answer: B
Explanation: These signs suggest potential serious brain injury.

 

True or false: Helmets reliably prevent all concussions in contact sports.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: Helmets reduce skull and face injury but do not eliminate brain acceleration forces.

True or false: Mouthguards reduce dental trauma risk during contact sports.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: They absorb and distribute impact to teeth and soft tissues.

 

A grade I muscle strain is characterized by:
A) Complete rupture and loss of function
B) Severe ecchymosis with palpable defect
C) Mild fiber disruption with minimal strength loss
D) Bone avulsion
Correct answer: C
Explanation: Grade I strains are mild with limited impairment.

 

A cramp differs from a strain because it is:
A) A ligament injury
B) An involuntary muscle contraction without tissue tear
C) A tendon rupture
D) An infection
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Cramps are sudden, painful contractions without structural tearing.

 

Delayed onset muscle soreness typically peaks:
A) Immediately after exercise
B) At twenty-four to seventy-two hours after novel or intense exercise
C) Two weeks later
D) Only during exercise
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Eccentric loading often produces soreness that peaks over one to three days.

 

Overuse injury risk most consistently rises with:
A) Very stable weekly training loads
B) Rapid, large increases in training volume or intensity
C) Wearing bright clothing
D) Morning training
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Sudden load spikes exceed tissue capacity and raise injury risk.

 

True or false: Return to play after a stinger requires full, pain-free neck range, normal strength, and normal sensation.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Neurologic recovery and function must be verified before return.

 

For a deep bleeding laceration, immediate first aid should prioritize:
A) Cleaning with sand
B) Direct pressure with a clean dressing and elevation
C) Removing clots with fingers
D) Pouring hydrogen peroxide repeatedly
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Pressure and elevation control bleeding until medical care.

 

An abrasion differs from a laceration in that an abrasion:
A) Involves full-thickness tissue loss
B) Is a superficial scrape of the skin
C) Requires suturing
D) Is always infected
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Abrasions are superficial injuries caused by friction.

 

A rib fracture commonly presents with:
A) Localized chest pain worse with deep breaths and coughing
B) Painless clicking at the knee
C) Neck stiffness only
D) Toe numbness
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Breathing motion stresses the injured rib, producing pain.

 

Pneumothorax after chest trauma may present with:
A) Improved exercise tolerance
B) Shortness of breath and chest pain; this is a medical emergency
C) Toe cramps
D) Elbow swelling only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Air in the pleural space compromises breathing and needs urgent care.

 

In sprinting, hamstring injury most often involves:
A) Proximal biceps femoris during late swing
B) Distal tibialis posterior
C) Soleus only
D) Gastrocnemius lateral head during mid-stance
Correct answer: A
Explanation: High eccentric demand during late swing stresses the proximal hamstring.

 

Calf muscle strains frequently involve the:
A) Medial head of the gastrocnemius during push-off
B) Soleus during sitting
C) Tibialis anterior during sleep
D) Peroneus brevis only
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Sudden ankle extension with knee extension loads the medial gastrocnemius.

 

An adductor (groin) strain often occurs during:
A) Straight-line jogging at very slow speed
B) Rapid change of direction or cutting
C) Sleeping
D) Swimming only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Quick lateral loading stresses the adductor longus and related tissues.

 

True or false: “Athletic pubalgia” refers to chronic groin pain from soft tissue injury near the pubic region, not a true hernia.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: It involves tendon and fascial injury around the lower abdominal and adductor region.

 

Facet joint–related low back pain is often aggravated by:
A) Repeated extension and rotation
B) Pure flexion only
C) Wrist pronation
D) Ankle inversion
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Extension and rotation compress posterior elements.

 

Throwers with internal rotation loss of the shoulder are at risk for:
A) Lateral ankle sprain
B) Posterior shoulder tightness and impingement
C) Tibial stress fracture only
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit alters mechanics and increases impingement risk.

 

“Little League elbow” in youth throwers involves:
A) Lateral collateral ligament tear
B) Medial elbow growth plate irritation from valgus stress
C) Distal biceps rupture
D) Wrist sprain
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Traction at the medial epicondyle apophysis occurs with repetitive throwing.

 

True or false: Weak hip abductors and external rotators can contribute to anterior knee pain in runners.
Correct answer: True
Explanation: Poor hip control can increase knee valgus and patellofemoral stress.

 

A high-risk foot stress fracture in runners is the:
A) Second metatarsal neck
B) Navicular bone
C) Fifth toe
D) Cuboid only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Navicular stress fractures heal slowly and risk complications.

 

Femoral neck stress fractures are concerning because they:
A) Are always painless
B) Risk displacement and avascular necrosis if missed
C) Do not require rest
D) Occur only in children
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Delayed diagnosis can have serious consequences.

 

Calcaneal apophysitis (Sever disease) is treated initially by:
A) Surgery
B) Activity modification, heel cushioning, and calf flexibility work
C) Running faster
D) Immobilizing the hip
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Reducing traction and impact helps the growth plate recover.

 

Sinding–Larsen–Johansson syndrome is:
A) A condition at the inferior pole of the patella in adolescents
B) A hip fracture
C) A shoulder labral tear
D) A wrist sprain
Correct answer: A
Explanation: It is a traction apophysitis at the patellar apex.

 

Peroneal tendon subluxation typically presents with:
A) Medial ankle tingling only
B) Popping sensation behind the lateral malleolus during ankle movement
C) Heel numbness
D) Plantar fascia tear
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The tendons snap over the lateral malleolus if the retinaculum is lax or torn.

 

Tarsal tunnel syndrome may cause:
A) Lateral knee pain
B) Tingling and pain along the plantar foot due to tibial nerve compression
C) Elbow weakness
D) Neck pain
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The tibial nerve passes behind the medial malleolus through the tarsal tunnel.

 

Cubital tunnel syndrome produces:
A) Median nerve numbness
B) Ulnar nerve symptoms in the ring and small fingers
C) Radial nerve palsy
D) Sciatic pain
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Ulnar nerve compression at the elbow causes these sensory changes.

 

A scaphoid fracture is at risk for:
A) Rapid healing without care
B) Avascular necrosis due to tenuous blood supply
C) Elbow stiffness
D) Shoulder instability
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Proximal pole perfusion is limited, risking nonunion and necrosis.

 

Initial care for an acromioclavicular joint sprain usually includes:
A) Aggressive overhead loading
B) Sling, ice, and gradual return of motion
C) Neck manipulation
D) Running sprints
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Protection and symptom control precede progressive rehabilitation.

 

A mid-shaft clavicle fracture in sport most often results from:
A) Twisting the wrist
B) Direct blow or fall on the shoulder
C) Toe hyperextension
D) Elbow valgus
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Impact to the shoulder region commonly fractures the clavicle.

 

A hip flexor strain typically involves the:
A) Iliopsoas or rectus femoris during kicking or sprinting
B) Gluteus medius during walking slowly
C) Soleus during cycling
D) Wrist extensors during typing
Correct answer: A
Explanation: Rapid hip flexion activities stress these muscles.

 

A hip labral tear may present with:
A) Mechanical catching and groin pain with pivoting
B) Only knee swelling
C) Wrist tingling
D) Heel pain
Correct answer: A
Explanation: The acetabular labrum can cause mechanical hip symptoms.

 

A proximal hamstring avulsion injury may present with:
A) Mild soreness only
B) Sudden pain at the ischial tuberosity with weakness and bruising
C) Wrist pain
D) Neck stiffness
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Avulsion from the origin causes marked dysfunction and ecchymosis.

 

Pes anserine bursitis causes pain:
A) At the lateral joint line
B) Just below the medial knee joint line
C) At the patellar apex only
D) In the popliteal fossa only
Correct answer: B
Explanation: The bursa lies beneath the conjoined tendons on the medial tibia.

 

Chronic ankle instability is best addressed by adding:
A) Only running mileage
B) Balance, proprioceptive, and strength training
C) Elbow stretches
D) Neck traction
Correct answer: B
Explanation: Sensorimotor and strength work improve control and reduce reinjury.

 

True or false: Most uncomplicated muscle strains and mild sprains improve with progressive loading once acute pain subsides.
Correct answer: True
 

Explanation: Gradual, pain-guided loading restores capacity and function.

True or false: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs always speed tendon healing.
Correct answer: False
Explanation: They may reduce pain short term but do not necessarily accelerate tendon repair.

 

Fill in the blank: A sudden “pop,” immediate weakness, and a palpable gap are classic for an acute ____________________________ rupture.
Correct answer: tendon
Explanation: Complete tendon failure produces these findings.

 

Fill in the blank: Pain that is sharp and localized to the bony anatomical snuffbox after a fall suggests a ____________________________ fracture.
Correct answer: scaphoid
Explanation: Snuffbox tenderness is a hallmark of scaphoid injury.

 

Short answer: Define a bone stress injury in simple terms.
Correct answer: A bone stress injury is a spectrum of overuse damage where repeated loading outpaces bone remodeling, leading from stress reaction to stress fracture.
Explanation: It results from imbalance between load and recovery.

 

Short answer: Why is progressive calf strengthening important after an Achilles tendon injury?
Correct answer: It rebuilds tendon stiffness and muscle strength needed for running and jumping while reducing reinjury risk.
Explanation: Tendon adapts to mechanical load.

 

Fill in the blank: Pain at the inferior pole of the patella during jumping and landing suggests ____________________________ tendon pain.
Correct answer: patellar
Explanation: The patellar tendon anchors at the inferior patella and is stressed with jumping.

 

Fill in the blank: A sprain of the first metatarsophalangeal joint from hyperextension is commonly called ____________________________.
Correct answer: turf toe
Explanation: The condition involves plantar plate and capsular sprain.

 

Short answer: List two immediate priorities when exertional heat stroke is suspected.
Correct answer: Initiate rapid whole-body cooling and activate emergency medical services.
Explanation: Fast cooling and medical care are lifesaving.

 

Short answer: What key sign distinguishes heat stroke from less severe heat illness?
Correct answer: Central nervous system dysfunction such as confusion, seizure, or collapse with very high core temperature.
Explanation: Neurologic impairment defines severity.

 

Fill in the blank: Pain and “popping” behind the lateral malleolus during ankle motion suggests ____________________________ tendon subluxation.
Correct answer: peroneal
Explanation: The peroneal tendons can displace over the lateral malleolus.

 

Fill in the blank: Tingling and pain along the bottom of the foot from nerve compression at the medial ankle is called ____________________________ tunnel syndrome.
Correct answer: tarsal
Explanation: The tibial nerve is compressed in the tarsal tunnel.

 

Short answer: Why is early protection from refreezing essential after thawing frostbite?
Correct answer: Refreezing causes more severe tissue damage than the initial freeze–thaw cycle.
Explanation: It greatly worsens injury.

 

Short answer: State one reason sudden large increases in training load lead to injury.
Correct answer: Tissues need time to adapt; rapid spikes exceed capacity and create overload at bone, tendon, and muscle.
Explanation: Adaptation lags behind load changes.

 

Fill in the blank: A traction apophysitis at the tibial tubercle in adolescents is known as ____________________________ disease.
Correct answer: Osgood–Schlatter
Explanation: It is a growth plate irritation from repetitive pulling of the patellar tendon.

 

Fill in the blank: A traction apophysitis at the inferior pole of the patella in adolescents is called ____________________________ syndrome.
Correct answer: Sinding–Larsen–Johansson
Explanation: It is an overuse injury of the patellar apex growth region.

 

Short answer: Why should suspected femoral neck stress fractures be referred promptly?
Correct answer: They can displace, risking blood supply to the femoral head and leading to serious complications.
Explanation: Early diagnosis prevents poor outcomes.

 

Short answer: Name one practical strategy to reduce recurrent ankle sprains.
Correct answer: Incorporate regular single-leg balance and hopping drills with progressive difficulty.
Explanation: Proprioception and strength lower reinjury risk.