Preparticipation screening primarily aims to:
A) Improve athletic performance immediately
B) Identify signs, symptoms, or history that warrant medical evaluation before testing
C) Replace emergency action plans
D) Diagnose specific diseases

​

Before any exercise test, the first measurements typically collected are:
A) Flexibility only
B) Resting heart rate, resting blood pressure, and basic anthropometrics
C) One repetition maximum testing
D) Twenty-meter shuttle run

​

Which is an absolute reason to stop a graded exercise test?
A) Mild facial flushing
B) Subject requests to stop
C) Stable leg discomfort rated 2 out of 10
D) Slight cuff artifact on blood pressure

​

During normal graded exercise, systolic blood pressure should:
A) Decrease markedly
B) Remain exactly the same
C) Increase progressively with workload
D) Show random changes unrelated to workload

​

During normal graded exercise, diastolic blood pressure should:
A) Increase more than twenty millimeters of mercury
B) Decrease more than twenty millimeters of mercury
C) Stay about the same with changes less than or equal to ten millimeters of mercury
D) Fall to zero

​

Which statement about informed consent for exercise testing is most accurate?
A) It is optional for submaximal tests
B) It documents that risks, benefits, and procedures were explained and understood
C) It guarantees there will be no adverse events
D) It replaces emergency planning

​

The order of a single testing session should generally be:
A) Aerobic field test → flexibility → resting blood pressure
B) Resting measures → body composition → muscular tests → cardiorespiratory tests → flexibility
C) Flexibility → resting measures → power tests → agility tests
D) Power → agility → sprint → maximal oxygen uptake test → resting blood pressure

​

The purpose of a warm-up before testing is to:
A) Reduce stroke volume
B) Lower muscle temperature
C) Prepare cardiovascular and neuromuscular systems and reduce injury risk
D) Exhaust the participant

​

A standard rating of perceived exertion scale commonly used in testing is the:
A) Ten to fifty scale
B) Six to twenty scale
C) Zero to one scale
D) Two to eight scale

​

Which mode generally yields the highest measured maximal oxygen uptake in healthy individuals?
A) Arm crank ergometry
B) Recumbent stepping
C) Treadmill running or brisk walking uphill
D) Single-leg cycling

​

An advantage of cycle ergometer testing versus treadmill testing is that cycling:
A) Requires less skill to maintain workload and is easier to measure power output
B) Always produces a higher maximal oxygen uptake
C) Requires no calibration
D) Eliminates cardiovascular strain

​

A disadvantage of cycle ergometer testing for many untrained people is that:
A) Heart rate cannot be measured
B) Local leg fatigue may limit performance before cardiovascular capacity is reached
C) Oxygen consumption is not related to workload
D) It cannot be used for submaximal testing

​

The Bruce treadmill protocol is characterized by:
A) Constant speed with small grade increases each minute
B) Three-minute stages with large increases in both speed and grade
C) Cycling stages at set cadences
D) Continuous downhill walking

​

The Balke treadmill protocol is characterized by:
A) Large grade and speed jumps every minute
B) Small, gradual grade increases at a constant moderate speed
C) Alternating running and cycling
D) Step height changes every thirty seconds

​

A submaximal cycle test that uses a six-minute steady-state workload and a nomogram to estimate maximal oxygen uptake is the:
A) Queens College step test
B) Astrand–Ryhming cycle test
C) Wingate anaerobic test
D) Cooper twelve-minute run

​

The Queens College step test estimates aerobic fitness from:
A) Peak blood lactate
B) Post-exercise heart rate at a set stepping cadence
C) Maximal voluntary ventilation
D) Blood pressure recovery at one minute

​

The twenty-meter shuttle run (“beep test”) is best described as:
A) A fixed-speed constant-load run
B) An incremental, externally paced field test to near maximal effort
C) A walking-only test
D) A test of static balance

​

The Cooper twelve-minute run test estimates:
A) Maximum strength
B) Maximal oxygen uptake from distance covered
C) Agility
D) Anaerobic capacity

 

Which is the most appropriate cuff size principle for accurate blood pressure at rest?
A) Cuff bladder should encircle at least forty percent of arm circumference
B) Cuff bladder width should be approximately forty percent of arm circumference and length should cover eighty percent
C) Use the smallest cuff for all
D) Use wrist cuffs for best accuracy

​

When measuring blood pressure, the stethoscope diaphragm is placed over the:
A) Brachial artery in the antecubital fossa
B) Radial artery at the wrist
C) Carotid artery
D) Femoral artery

​

A normal heart rate response to graded exercise is:
A) Little change until maximal effort
B) A roughly linear increase with workload in submaximal domains
C) Immediate plateau at one hundred beats per minute
D) Decrease as workload rises

​

Which statement about test environment is most accurate?
A) Room temperature does not matter
B) Excess noise and poor ventilation can alter heart rate and perceived effort
C) Fans should never be used
D) Lighting determines oxygen consumption

​

The Wingate anaerobic test primarily assesses:
A) Aerobic capacity
B) Peak and mean anaerobic power over thirty seconds of maximal cycling
C) Flexibility
D) Balance

​

Vertical jump testing primarily evaluates:
A) Aerobic endurance
B) Lower-body explosive power
C) Flexibility of the spine
D) Balance

​

Which of the following improves reliability when estimating one repetition maximum from repetitions to fatigue?
A) No warm-up and jump directly to a maximal attempt
B) Standardize range of motion, tempo, and rest intervals across sessions
C) Change exercises mid-test
D) Allow variable encouragement

​

A common field agility test that uses cones in a T shape is the:
A) Illinois agility test
B) T-test
C) Hexagon test
D) Y-Balance test

​

Body mass index is calculated as:
A) Mass divided by height
B) Mass divided by height squared
C) Height divided by mass
D) Mass squared divided by height

​

A key limitation of body mass index in athlete testing is that it:
A) Requires expensive equipment
B) Does not distinguish fat mass from lean mass
C) Cannot be calculated for tall people
D) Is unrelated to health

​

Skinfold assessment relies on the assumption that:
A) Subcutaneous fat is unrelated to total body fat
B) A fixed proportion of total fat is subcutaneous for a given population
C) Fat-free mass density varies widely between people
D) Hydration does not affect results

​

Bioelectrical impedance analysis can be biased most by:
A) Time of day only
B) Hydration status and recent food or exercise
C) Shoe type
D) Hair length

​

Air displacement plethysmography (for example, a chamber method) estimates body composition by measuring:
A) Bone mineral directly
B) Body volume from pressure changes
C) Skinfold thickness
D) Oxygen uptake

​

Hydrostatic weighing estimates body composition by:
A) Skinfolds
B) Air pressure
C) Water displacement and residual lung volume
D) Infrared light

​

A two-compartment model of body composition divides the body into:
A) Water and solids
B) Fat mass and fat-free mass
C) Muscle and bone
D) Skin and organs

​

Which statement about test validity is correct?
A) Content validity is unrelated to the test purpose
B) Criterion validity reflects correlation with a gold standard measure
C) Reliability and validity are identical
D) Face validity guarantees accuracy

​

Which statement about test reliability is correct?
A) Reliability is the degree of agreement and consistency upon repeated measures
B) Reliability is the same as sensitivity
C) Reliability cannot be improved
D) Reliability ignores protocol standardization

​

Standard error of estimate in a prediction equation represents:
A) The average absolute error in kilograms
B) The spread of residuals around the regression line
C) The test’s face validity
D) The minimum number of subjects needed

​

A valid reason to terminate a graded exercise test immediately is:
A) Systolic blood pressure greater than or equal to two hundred fifty millimeters of mercury or diastolic greater than or equal to one hundred fifteen millimeters of mercury
B) Rate of perceived exertion of eleven on the six to twenty scale
C) Mildly elevated heart rate
D) Sweat on forehead

​

An abnormal blood pressure response that warrants test termination is:
A) A rise in systolic blood pressure with increasing workload
B) A drop in systolic blood pressure of ten millimeters of mercury or more with increased workload
C) Stable diastolic pressure within ten millimeters of mercury
D) Slight cuff artifact

​

When estimating maximal oxygen uptake from submaximal heart rate responses, one key assumption is that:
A) Heart rate and oxygen uptake are unrelated
B) Heart rate increases linearly with oxygen uptake at submaximal intensities
C) Stroke volume decreases with workload
D) Everyone has the same maximal heart rate

​

A common equation to estimate age-predicted maximal heart rate is:
A) Two hundred plus age
B) Two hundred twenty minus age
C) One hundred eighty minus age
D) Two hundred forty minus age

​

Heart rate reserve is defined as:
A) Maximal heart rate divided by resting heart rate
B) Maximal heart rate minus resting heart rate
C) Resting heart rate minus recovery heart rate
D) Peak heart rate during a stage

​

A test of trunk flexibility commonly used in field settings is:
A) Sit-and-reach test
B) Vertical jump test
C) Star excursion test
D) Margaria stair test

​

Which improves the accuracy of a one repetition maximum test?
A) No warm-up and a single maximal attempt
B) Specific warm-up sets, correct spotting, and two to three minutes rest between near-maximal attempts
C) Changing exercises each trial
D) Testing to failure without supervision

​

Handgrip dynamometry primarily assesses:
A) Anaerobic capacity
B) Static strength of the forearm and hand
C) Aerobic endurance
D) Flexibility

​

The Y-Balance or star excursion test primarily evaluates:
A) Shoulder mobility
B) Dynamic balance and lower-limb reach control
C) Maximal strength
D) Blood pressure regulation

​

Which statement about test familiarization is correct?
A) It is unnecessary for simple tests
B) It reduces learning effects and improves reliability for skill-dependent tests
C) It lowers maximal effort
D) It invalidates results

​

For power measurement on a cycle ergometer, mechanical power in watts equals:
A) Force times distance per revolution times cadence divided by six point twelve
B) Force times distance per revolution times cadence
C) Force divided by cadence
D) Cadence divided by force

On a standard cycle ergometer with a distance of six meters per revolution, a resistance of two kilopond at sixty revolutions per minute produces a power of about:
A) Sixty watts
B) Ninety watts
C) One hundred eighteen watts
D) Two hundred watts

​

When converting treadmill speed, one mile per hour equals approximately:
A) Ten meters per minute
B) Twenty-six point eight meters per minute
C) Fifty meters per minute
D) One hundred meters per minute

​

Which factor most reduces error when using metabolic cost equations for walking or running?
A) Using them for any gait, including skipping
B) Applying them within their intended speed and grade ranges with steady-state movement
C) Applying them during rapid acceleration
D) Using them for stair climbing

​

A normal oxygen uptake response at true maximal effort often includes:
A) A plateau in oxygen uptake despite further increases in workload
B) A decrease in heart rate
C) A drop in ventilation
D) A fall in respiratory exchange ratio

​

Respiratory exchange ratio at or above one point ten during a graded test suggests:
A) Low effort
B) Near-maximal or maximal effort
C) Measurement failure
D) Immediate illness

​

Which variable is most useful to detect ventilatory threshold during a gas analysis test?
A) Resting heart rate
B) Nonlinear increase in ventilation relative to oxygen uptake
C) Body mass index
D) Sit-and-reach score

​

In clinical treadmill testing with electrocardiogram, a concerning sign is:
A) Upsloping mild ST depression at very high workloads only
B) Horizontal or downsloping ST depression of one millimeter or more in contiguous leads
C) T wave inversion in aVR only
D) Tall T waves in V3 during warm-up

​

Which of the following is a relative reason (depending on context) to stop a test?
A) Participant requests to stop
B) Drop in systolic blood pressure with increased workload
C) Increasing chest discomfort, severe shortness of breath, or signs of poor perfusion
D) Shoe lace untied

​

Standardization that most improves repeatability for submaximal cycle tests is to:
A) Allow any cadence
B) Use a fixed cadence such as fifty or sixty revolutions per minute and steady-state stages
C) Change the seat height each stage
D) Remove the warm-up

​

Which practice improves safety during field tests in hot conditions?
A) Testing at midday without shade
B) Starting well hydrated, scheduling in cooler hours, and monitoring signs of heat illness
C) Wearing non-breathable clothing
D) Eliminating all rest and water breaks

​

When measuring waist circumference, the tape should be:
A) Angled and tight
B) Horizontal, snug but not compressing the skin, at a standard anatomical site
C) Placed over clothing
D) Stretched as tight as possible

​

A field test primarily used for anaerobic capacity over stairs is the:
A) Margaria–Kalamen stair test
B) Queens College step test
C) Cooper twelve-minute run
D) Beep test

​

When testing muscular endurance of the upper body with a push-up test, standardization should include:
A) Variable elbow depth
B) Consistent hand position, cadence or continuous pace, and proper technique to a set depth
C) Allowing hips to sag for more repetitions
D) Counting partial repetitions

​

A simple static balance assessment is the:
A) Single-leg stance time with eyes open and closed
B) Vertical jump height
C) One repetition maximum deadlift
D) Treadmill time to exhaustion

​

Muscular power differs from muscular strength because power emphasizes:
A) Absolute load regardless of time
B) Speed of force production (work per unit time)
C) Flexibility
D) Anaerobic threshold

​

Which device directly measures ground reaction forces during jump or landing tests?
A) Dynamometer
B) Force plate
C) Goniometer
D) Spirometer

​

A manual goniometer is used to measure:
A) Heart rate
B) Joint range of motion
C) Power output
D) Oxygen uptake

​

A key safety step before one repetition maximum testing is to:
A) Skip the warm-up to avoid fatigue
B) Provide a spotter, review technique, and clear the lifting area
C) Use maximal loads without collars
D) Hold breath throughout all attempts

​

Which test best reflects combined speed and agility?
A) Thirty-meter flying sprint
B) T-test
C) Sit-and-reach
D) Handgrip

​

In a submaximal cycle test, steady state heart rate is typically defined as:
A) A change of less than five beats per minute between the second and third minute at the same workload
B) Any heart rate above one hundred beats per minute
C) A fixed heart rate of one hundred twenty beats per minute
D) A five-minute average

​

Which is the best practice for calibrating a gas analysis system before a test?
A) Skip calibration
B) Perform flow and gas concentration calibration with known reference values
C) Adjust settings after the test
D) Calibrate once per year

​

The respiratory exchange ratio is defined as:
A) Oxygen uptake divided by minute ventilation
B) Carbon dioxide output divided by oxygen uptake
C) Work rate divided by oxygen uptake
D) Ventilation divided by tidal volume

​

Ventilatory threshold often occurs at approximately:
A) Ten percent of maximal oxygen uptake
B) Twenty-five percent of maximal oxygen uptake
C) Fifty to seventy percent of maximal oxygen uptake in many healthy adults
D) One hundred percent of maximal oxygen uptake

​

A normal oxygen pulse (oxygen uptake divided by heart rate) tends to:
A) Decrease linearly with workload
B) Increase with workload and plateau near maximal effort
C) Remain fixed across intensities
D) Be unrelated to stroke volume

​

Which practice best minimizes inter-tester skinfold error?
A) Measuring sites in random order
B) Using the same trained tester, standard anatomical sites, and repeated trials with the mean recorded
C) Rounding to the nearest five millimeters
D) Switching calipers mid-test

​

A meaningful change in a test score is best judged by:
A) The smallest possible difference
B) Exceeding the typical error or coefficient of variation of the test
C) Any change greater than zero
D) A single trial result

​

Which variable most strongly influences oxygen cost during level treadmill walking?
A) Body mass index
B) Walking speed
C) Shoe color
D) Time of day

​

In a step test, increasing step height while keeping cadence constant will primarily:
A) Decrease work rate
B) Increase work rate and cardiorespiratory demand
C) Not change work rate
D) Decrease heart rate

​

A post-exercise heart rate measured exactly one minute after stopping a submaximal test is useful because:
A) It estimates joint range of motion
B) Faster recovery is generally associated with better cardiorespiratory fitness
C) It determines body fat directly
D) It replaces blood pressure

​

Which is the most appropriate hydration guidance for typical submaximal field testing in temperate conditions?
A) Avoid drinking water before testing
B) Begin well hydrated and drink small amounts as needed
C) Drink only after testing
D) Only drink sports drinks

​

A person with a recent change in chest discomfort suggestive of ischemia should:
A) Proceed with field testing if they feel like it
B) Be referred for medical evaluation before exercise testing
C) Do only flexibility testing
D) Skip consent

​

In a six-minute walk test, the primary outcome is:
A) Maximum sprint speed
B) Distance walked in six minutes
C) Peak power
D) Vertical jump height

​

For a timed up-and-go test, performance is primarily influenced by:
A) Upper-body strength only
B) Mobility, lower-body power, balance, and change-of-direction ability
C) Handgrip strength
D) Flexibility alone

​

True or false: Resting heart rate should be measured after the participant has been seated quietly for at least five minutes.

 

True or false: Diastolic blood pressure normally increases markedly as workload rises in healthy people.

 

True or false: Participants must continue a test even if they ask to stop, to obtain valid results.

True or false: Submaximal heart rate–based predictions assume a linear relation between heart rate and oxygen uptake below the ventilatory threshold.

​

True or false: Treadmill running usually elicits a higher maximal oxygen uptake than cycle ergometry in untrained individuals.

​

True or false: The Wingate anaerobic test is an aerobic endurance test.

​

True or false: Validity refers to whether a test measures what it is intended to measure.

​

True or false: Reliability means that repeated measurements under the same conditions give similar results.

​

True or false: Skinfold measures are completely independent of tester skill.

​

True or false: A drop in systolic blood pressure with increasing workload is a concerning sign during graded exercise testing.

​

Fill in the blank: The six to twenty rating of perceived exertion scale is often used because it roughly parallels ____________________________ in healthy adults.

​

Fill in the blank: Heart rate reserve is calculated as ____________________________ minus ____________________________.

​

Fill in the blank: In a cycle ergometer, mechanical power (watts) equals (kilopond × meters per revolution × revolutions per minute) divided by ____________________________.

​

Fill in the blank: One mile per hour equals approximately ____________________________ meters per minute.

​

Fill in the blank: The twenty-meter shuttle run is an ____________________________ field test to near maximal effort.

​

Fill in the blank: The primary field outcome of the six-minute walk test is ____________________________ covered in six minutes.

​

Fill in the blank: A common reason to immediately terminate a test is the participant’s ____________________________ to stop.

​

Fill in the blank: During normal graded exercise, ____________________________ blood pressure increases while ____________________________ blood pressure changes very little.

​

Fill in the blank: The sit-and-reach test is commonly used to assess ____________________________ flexibility.

​

Fill in the blank: The T-test is a field measure of multi-directional ____________________________.

​

Short answer: State two absolute reasons to stop a graded exercise test.

​

Short answer: Give two practices that improve blood pressure measurement accuracy before testing.

​

Short answer: Describe how to estimate maximal oxygen uptake from a submaximal cycle test using steady-state heart rate.

​

Short answer: List two advantages of treadmill testing and two advantages of cycle ergometer testing.

​

Short answer: Explain why standardizing cadence is important in submaximal cycle tests.

​

Short answer: Provide one reason field tests are useful and one limitation compared with laboratory tests.

​

Short answer: How can you reduce learning effects in agility testing?

​

Short answer: Why might treadmill testing be preferred over cycle testing for some apparently healthy adults?

​

Short answer: Give a practical strategy to ensure comparable environmental conditions across test days.

​

Short answer: Provide one reason to include heart rate recovery in a test report.