A sprain is best defined as an injury to the:
A) Muscle belly
B) Tendon
C) Ligament
D) Nerve

​

A strain is best defined as an injury to the:
A) Ligament
B) Cartilage
C) Muscle or tendon
D) Nerve root

​

Which is the correct order of the three major phases of soft tissue healing?
A) Proliferation → Inflammation → Remodeling
B) Inflammation → Proliferation → Remodeling
C) Remodeling → Inflammation → Proliferation
D) Inflammation → Remodeling → Proliferation

​

A grade I lateral ankle sprain most commonly injures the:
A) Deltoid ligament
B) Calcaneofibular ligament only
C) Anterior talofibular ligament
D) Posterior talofibular ligament

​

A medial (eversion) ankle sprain primarily injures the:
A) Deltoid ligament complex
B) Anterior talofibular ligament
C) Plantar fascia
D) Peroneal tendons

​

Which finding most strongly suggests Achilles tendon rupture?
A) Pain at the heel pad only
B) Positive calf squeeze test with no plantarflexion
C) Pain with passive dorsiflexion only
D) Heel blisters after running

​

True or false: An athlete with suspected concussion should be removed from play immediately and evaluated.

True or false: An athlete who had concussion symptoms should return to the same game if symptoms resolve in ten minutes.

Fill in the blank: The three major phases of soft tissue healing are ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________.

A stress fracture is best characterized by:
A) Sudden bone failure after one impact
B) Insidious onset of focal bony tenderness that worsens with activity
C) Pain only at rest without activity relation
D) Numbness without pain

​

Initial management of an acute muscle strain most appropriately emphasizes:
A) Heat, deep massage, and aggressive stretching
B) Rest, cold application, compression, and elevation
C) Running through the pain
D) Immediate maximal strengthening

​

Patellofemoral pain syndrome is classically described as:
A) Sharp lateral knee pain with varus stress
B) Diffuse anterior knee pain worse with stairs or prolonged sitting
C) Medial joint line locking
D) Pain only at rest

​

Iliotibial band friction syndrome most often presents as:
A) Medial knee pain
B) Lateral knee pain near the femoral epicondyle during running
C) Posterior knee swelling
D) Anterior knee locking

​

Medial tibial stress syndrome is commonly known as:
A) Plantar fasciitis
B) Shin splints with diffuse medial tibial pain
C) Achilles tendinopathy
D) Compartment syndrome

​

Which symptom is a red flag for acute compartment syndrome?
A) Itching at night
B) Pain out of proportion and pain with passive stretch
C) Only mild soreness after activity
D) Bruising that resolves in one day

​

Anatomical snuffbox tenderness after a fall on an outstretched hand suggests injury to the:
A) Ulna
B) Radius shaft
C) Scaphoid
D) Lunate

​

After an anterior shoulder dislocation, the nerve most at risk is the:
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Axillary nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Radial nerve

​

The most commonly torn rotator cuff tendon is the:
A) Subscapularis
B) Teres minor
C) Supraspinatus
D) Infraspinatus

​

A superior labrum anterior-to-posterior tear often occurs with:
A) Direct blow to the shin
B) Repetitive overhead throwing or traction on the biceps anchor
C) Lateral ankle inversion
D) Toe stub

​

Injury commonly called “skier’s thumb” involves the:
A) Radial collateral ligament of the thumb
B) Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb
C) Flexor pollicis longus tendon
D) Extensor pollicis longus tendon

​

“Jersey finger” is a disruption of the:
A) Extensor tendon at the distal phalanx
B) Flexor digitorum profundus tendon
C) Flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
D) Palmar interossei

​

“Mallet finger” is caused by injury to the:
A) Extensor tendon at the distal phalanx
B) Flexor digitorum profundus
C) Flexor retinaculum
D) Thenar muscles

​

A known risk factor for hamstring strain is:
A) High eccentric hamstring strength
B) Prior hamstring injury
C) Daily stretching habit
D) Low running speed

​

A possible complication of severe quadriceps contusion is:
A) Myositis ossificans
B) Tendon rupture of the biceps
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Plantar wart

​

An acromioclavicular joint sprain typically presents with:
A) Pain at the sternum
B) Step-off deformity and pain at the lateral clavicle
C) Elbow pain only
D) Painless swelling of the wrist

​

Plantar fasciitis pain is usually worst:
A) At the end of a long run only
B) With first steps in the morning or after rest
C) During deep squats
D) Only while seated

​

Osgood–Schlatter disease is:
A) A tibial tuberosity traction apophysitis in youth
B) A partial tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
C) A hip labral tear
D) A muscular dystrophy

​

Sever disease refers to:
A) Calcaneal apophysitis in youth
B) Achilles rupture in adults
C) Plantar fascia tear
D) Cuboid fracture

​

Spondylolysis is most associated with:
A) Repeated spinal flexion
B) Repeated lumbar extension and rotation in adolescents
C) Only heavy deadlifting once
D) Ankle sprains

​

True or false: Lumbar disc herniation pain commonly worsens with forward bending and sitting.

​

Lateral elbow tendinopathy (“tennis elbow”) classically presents with pain during:
A) Wrist flexion and pronation
B) Wrist extension and gripping
C) Shoulder abduction
D) Neck rotation

​

Medial elbow tendinopathy (“golfer’s elbow”) typically hurts with:
A) Supination only
B) Wrist flexion and forearm pronation
C) Wrist extension
D) Shoulder adduction

​

Shoulder impingement is often worsened by:
A) Overhead internal rotation with poor scapular upward rotation
B) Elbow flexion to ninety degrees
C) Forearm pronation
D) Wrist extension

​

A typical noncontact mechanism of anterior cruciate ligament injury is:
A) Hyperextension with valgus and rotation during deceleration
B) Direct blow to the posterior tibia
C) Pure varus stress with foot planted
D) Axial distraction

​

Posterior cruciate ligament injury often results from:
A) Landing from a jump
B) A blow to the anterior tibia with the knee flexed (dashboard mechanism)
C) Valgus stress in a side step
D) Hyperabduction

​

A valgus stress to the knee commonly injures the:
A) Lateral collateral ligament
B) Medial collateral ligament
C) Posterior cruciate ligament
D) Popliteus tendon

​

Meniscal tears often present with:
A) Diffuse anterior knee ache only
B) Joint line tenderness, swelling, or mechanical catching
C) Pain only at rest
D) Instant bruising without swelling

​

The purpose of the Ottawa ankle rules is to:
A) Replace physical examination
B) Identify when radiographs are indicated after ankle injury
C) Diagnose ligament tears definitively
D) Choose footwear

​

Heat stroke is most clearly distinguished from heat exhaustion by:
A) Muscle cramps
B) Elevated core temperature with central nervous system dysfunction
C) Mild thirst
D) Normal mental status

​

Exertional hyponatremia is most often associated with:
A) Excessive intake of plain water with inadequate sodium
B) Not drinking at all
C) Eating salty foods during exercise
D) Wearing extra clothing

​

Hypothermia first-aid priorities include:
A) Rubbing cold tissue vigorously
B) Removing wet clothing, insulation, and gradual rewarming
C) Immediate hot shower for all cases
D) Encouraging sprinting

​

Frostbite field care should:
A) Rub the tissue to restore circulation
B) Rewarm in warm water and protect from refreezing
C) Apply ice directly
D) Pop blisters

​

To help prevent foot blisters, athletes should:
A) Wear cotton socks only
B) Reduce friction and moisture using proper socks and fit
C) Avoid trimming toenails
D) Run only on concrete

​

Compared with medial tibial stress syndrome, a tibial stress fracture more often shows:
A) Diffuse tenderness
B) Focal point tenderness and pain with hopping
C) Pain that improves with running
D) Pain only at night

​

A common neurologic complication after anterior shoulder dislocation is:
A) Median nerve palsy
B) Axillary nerve palsy with deltoid weakness
C) Ulnar nerve palsy only
D) Sciatic nerve palsy

​

A “stinger” or “burner” is best described as:
A) Bilateral leg numbness after a fall
B) Transient unilateral arm burning pain or numbness from brachial plexus traction
C) Chronic neck fracture
D) Wrist sprain

​

True or false: Midline cervical spine tenderness after collision warrants immobilization and medical evaluation.

An avulsed permanent tooth should ideally be:
A) Scrubbed clean and left to dry
B) Reimplanted quickly or stored in milk or saline for urgent dental care
C) Wrapped in tissue paper
D) Placed in the athlete’s pocket

​

First aid for uncomplicated anterior nosebleed includes:
A) Leaning back and pinching the bony bridge
B) Leaning forward and pinching the soft part of the nose
C) Tilting head to the side and applying heat
D) Packing with dirt

​

Presence of blood in the front of the eye after trauma (hyphema) indicates:
A) Simple conjunctivitis
B) An ocular emergency requiring urgent evaluation
C) A benign eyelid bruise
D) Dry eye

​

Eccentric hamstring strengthening, such as the Nordic exercise, is included to:
A) Increase static flexibility only
B) Reduce hamstring strain risk and recurrence
C) Train calf endurance
D) Replace running

​

For tendinopathy, the central exercise approach is:
A) Complete rest until painless for months
B) Progressive loading within tolerable pain
C) Only stretching
D) Surgical repair immediately

​

Achilles tendinopathy typically presents with:
A) Sudden snap and a palpable gap
B) Gradual onset tendon pain, often worse with loading
C) Painless swelling only
D) Pain exclusively at night

​

Patellar tendon tendinopathy pain is most often located at the:
A) Lateral patella
B) Inferior pole of the patella
C) Tibial plateau
D) Popliteal fossa

​

Posterior shoulder dislocation is classically associated with:
A) Seizure or electric shock
B) Tennis serve
C) Underhand throw
D) Cycling

​

Rapid mileage increase on hard surfaces most increases risk for:
A) Plantar warts
B) Bone stress injury
C) Meniscal tear
D) Shoulder dislocation

​

A high ankle sprain (syndesmotic injury) mechanism often involves:
A) Plantarflexion and inversion
B) Dorsiflexion with external rotation of the foot
C) Pure eversion only
D) Hyperextension of the toes

​

“Turf toe” refers to a sprain of the:
A) First metatarsophalangeal joint with hyperextension
B) Fifth toe nail bed
C) Plantar fascia origin
D) Tarsal tunnel

​

Concussion red flags requiring urgent evaluation include:
A) Mild fatigue only
B) Worsening headache, repeated vomiting, seizure, or unequal pupils
C) Thirst and hunger
D) Sore calf

​

True or false: Helmets reliably prevent all concussions in contact sports.

​

True or false: Mouthguards reduce dental trauma risk during contact sports.

​

A grade I muscle strain is characterized by:
A) Complete rupture and loss of function
B) Severe ecchymosis with palpable defect
C) Mild fiber disruption with minimal strength loss
D) Bone avulsion

​

A cramp differs from a strain because it is:
A) A ligament injury
B) An involuntary muscle contraction without tissue tear
C) A tendon rupture
D) An infection

​

Delayed onset muscle soreness typically peaks:
A) Immediately after exercise
B) At twenty-four to seventy-two hours after novel or intense exercise
C) Two weeks later
D) Only during exercise

​

Overuse injury risk most consistently rises with:
A) Very stable weekly training loads
B) Rapid, large increases in training volume or intensity
C) Wearing bright clothing
D) Morning training

​

True or false: Return to play after a stinger requires full, pain-free neck range, normal strength, and normal sensation.

​

For a deep bleeding laceration, immediate first aid should prioritize:
A) Cleaning with sand
B) Direct pressure with a clean dressing and elevation
C) Removing clots with fingers
D) Pouring hydrogen peroxide repeatedly

​

An abrasion differs from a laceration in that an abrasion:
A) Involves full-thickness tissue loss
B) Is a superficial scrape of the skin
C) Requires suturing
D) Is always infected

​

A rib fracture commonly presents with:
A) Localized chest pain worse with deep breaths and coughing
B) Painless clicking at the knee
C) Neck stiffness only
D) Toe numbness

​

Pneumothorax after chest trauma may present with:
A) Improved exercise tolerance
B) Shortness of breath and chest pain; this is a medical emergency
C) Toe cramps
D) Elbow swelling only

​

In sprinting, hamstring injury most often involves:
A) Proximal biceps femoris during late swing
B) Distal tibialis posterior
C) Soleus only
D) Gastrocnemius lateral head during mid-stance

​

Calf muscle strains frequently involve the:
A) Medial head of the gastrocnemius during push-off
B) Soleus during sitting
C) Tibialis anterior during sleep
D) Peroneus brevis only

​

An adductor (groin) strain often occurs during:
A) Straight-line jogging at very slow speed
B) Rapid change of direction or cutting
C) Sleeping
D) Swimming only

​

True or false: “Athletic pubalgia” refers to chronic groin pain from soft tissue injury near the pubic region, not a true hernia.

​

Facet joint–related low back pain is often aggravated by:
A) Repeated extension and rotation
B) Pure flexion only
C) Wrist pronation
D) Ankle inversion

​

Throwers with internal rotation loss of the shoulder are at risk for:
A) Lateral ankle sprain
B) Posterior shoulder tightness and impingement
C) Tibial stress fracture only
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome

​

“Little League elbow” in youth throwers involves:
A) Lateral collateral ligament tear
B) Medial elbow growth plate irritation from valgus stress
C) Distal biceps rupture
D) Wrist sprain

​

True or false: Weak hip abductors and external rotators can contribute to anterior knee pain in runners.

​

A high-risk foot stress fracture in runners is the:
A) Second metatarsal neck
B) Navicular bone
C) Fifth toe
D) Cuboid only

​

Femoral neck stress fractures are concerning because they:
A) Are always painless
B) Risk displacement and avascular necrosis if missed
C) Do not require rest
D) Occur only in children

​

Calcaneal apophysitis (Sever disease) is treated initially by:
A) Surgery
B) Activity modification, heel cushioning, and calf flexibility work
C) Running faster
D) Immobilizing the hip

​

Sinding–Larsen–Johansson syndrome is:
A) A condition at the inferior pole of the patella in adolescents
B) A hip fracture
C) A shoulder labral tear
D) A wrist sprain

​

Peroneal tendon subluxation typically presents with:
A) Medial ankle tingling only
B) Popping sensation behind the lateral malleolus during ankle movement
C) Heel numbness
D) Plantar fascia tear

​

Tarsal tunnel syndrome may cause:
A) Lateral knee pain
B) Tingling and pain along the plantar foot due to tibial nerve compression
C) Elbow weakness
D) Neck pain

​

Cubital tunnel syndrome produces:
A) Median nerve numbness
B) Ulnar nerve symptoms in the ring and small fingers
C) Radial nerve palsy
D) Sciatic pain

​

A scaphoid fracture is at risk for:
A) Rapid healing without care
B) Avascular necrosis due to tenuous blood supply
C) Elbow stiffness
D) Shoulder instability

​

Initial care for an acromioclavicular joint sprain usually includes:
A) Aggressive overhead loading
B) Sling, ice, and gradual return of motion
C) Neck manipulation
D) Running sprints

​

A mid-shaft clavicle fracture in sport most often results from:
A) Twisting the wrist
B) Direct blow or fall on the shoulder
C) Toe hyperextension
D) Elbow valgus

​

A hip flexor strain typically involves the:
A) Iliopsoas or rectus femoris during kicking or sprinting
B) Gluteus medius during walking slowly
C) Soleus during cycling
D) Wrist extensors during typing

​

A hip labral tear may present with:
A) Mechanical catching and groin pain with pivoting
B) Only knee swelling
C) Wrist tingling
D) Heel pain

​

A proximal hamstring avulsion injury may present with:
A) Mild soreness only
B) Sudden pain at the ischial tuberosity with weakness and bruising
C) Wrist pain
D) Neck stiffness

 

Pes anserine bursitis causes pain:
A) At the lateral joint line
B) Just below the medial knee joint line
C) At the patellar apex only
D) In the popliteal fossa only

 

Chronic ankle instability is best addressed by adding:
A) Only running mileage
B) Balance, proprioceptive, and strength training
C) Elbow stretches
D) Neck traction

 

True or false: Most uncomplicated muscle strains and mild sprains improve with progressive loading once acute pain subsides.

 

True or false: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs always speed tendon healing.

 

Fill in the blank: A sudden “pop,” immediate weakness, and a palpable gap are classic for an acute ____________________________ rupture.

 

Fill in the blank: Pain that is sharp and localized to the bony anatomical snuffbox after a fall suggests a ____________________________ fracture.

 

Short answer: Define a bone stress injury in simple terms.

 

Short answer: Why is progressive calf strengthening important after an Achilles tendon injury?

 

Fill in the blank: Pain at the inferior pole of the patella during jumping and landing suggests ____________________________ tendon pain.

 

Fill in the blank: A sprain of the first metatarsophalangeal joint from hyperextension is commonly called ____________________________.

 

Short answer: List two immediate priorities when exertional heat stroke is suspected.

 

Short answer: What key sign distinguishes heat stroke from less severe heat illness?

 

Fill in the blank: Pain and “popping” behind the lateral malleolus during ankle motion suggests ____________________________ tendon subluxation.

 

Fill in the blank: Tingling and pain along the bottom of the foot from nerve compression at the medial ankle is called ____________________________ tunnel syndrome.

 

Short answer: Why is early protection from refreezing essential after thawing frostbite?

 

Short answer: State one reason sudden large increases in training load lead to injury.

 

Fill in the blank: A traction apophysitis at the tibial tubercle in adolescents is known as ____________________________ disease.

 

Fill in the blank: A traction apophysitis at the inferior pole of the patella in adolescents is called ____________________________ syndrome.

 

Short answer: Why should suspected femoral neck stress fractures be referred promptly?

 

Short answer: Name one practical strategy to reduce recurrent ankle sprains.